Fast Facts for Board Review

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on transient benign neonatal skin findings with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet lists benign findings that can be seen in neonates and infants.

Practice Questions

1. The parents of a 2-month-old infant present with their child. They are worried because the infant has “acne” that is not going away. Friends told them to try gentle cleansers and they have avoided using lotions or cream on her face. However, the bumps will not go away. On examination she has papules and pustules. Comedones cannot be identified. What are your next steps?

a. adapalene cream 0.1% every night at bedtime
b. benzoyl peroxide cream 4%
c. benzoyl peroxide wash 2.5%
d. erythromycin gel 2%
e. ketoconazole cream 2% twice daily

2. While in the newborn nursery prior to discharge, the attending pediatrician notices a rash on a 2-day-old neonate who is otherwise completely healthy. The pediatrician consults a dermatologist for his/her opinion. The dermatologist sees erythematous macules with central pustules located predominately on the trunk and proximal extremities. A pustule is unroofed with a blade, the contents smeared on a glass slide, and a Giemsa stain is performed. What is the predominant cell type you would expect to see on histological examination?

a. eosinophils
b. Langerhans cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. no cells are visualized

3. Shortly after delivery, the pediatricians notice that the baby has numerous hyperpigmented macules on the back. No other primary lesions are seen. The neonate is otherwise normal in appearance and nontoxic appearing. A dermatologist is consulted for a recommendation for further workup or potential biopsy. The dermatologist examines the newborn. He is a well-appearing black boy with skin that is otherwise intact. A few pustules on the back are present that have a collarette of scale. The dermatologist reviews the mother’s prenatal history and the review shows that she was screened for syphilis and had a negative screening test with no other history of infectious diseases. What is the most appropriate next step to confirm your suspicions?

a. do a swab of a pustule and send it for viral culture
b. have his blood drawn and check for signs of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
c. perform a biopsy of a pustule
d. perform a Giemsa stain on a smear of the pustule
e. start treatment with permethrin

4. Which intraoral cysts occur on the alveolar ridge of a neonate?

a. Bohn nodule
b. branchial cleft cyst
c. Epstein pearls
d. median raphe cyst
e. palatal cysts of the newborn

5. Miliaria rubra is associated with inflammation of the sweat glands in what portion of the skin?

a. basement membrane zone
b. dermis
c. dermoepidermal junction
d. intraepidermal
e. subcutis

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. The parents of a 2-month-old infant present with their child. They are worried because the infant has “acne” that is not going away. Friends told them to try gentle cleansers and they have avoided using lotions or cream on her face. However, the bumps will not go away. On examination she has papules and pustules. Comedones cannot be identified. What are your next steps?

a. adapalene cream 0.1% every night at bedtime
b. benzoyl peroxide cream 4%
c. benzoyl peroxide wash 2.5%
d. erythromycin gel 2%
e. ketoconazole cream 2% twice daily

2. While in the newborn nursery prior to discharge, the attending pediatrician notices a rash on a 2-day-old neonate who is otherwise completely healthy. The pediatrician consults a dermatologist for his/her opinion. The dermatologist sees erythematous macules with central pustules located predominately on the trunk and proximal extremities. A pustule is unroofed with a blade, the contents smeared on a glass slide, and a Giemsa stain is performed. What is the predominant cell type you would expect to see on histological examination?

a. eosinophils
b. Langerhans cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. no cells are visualized

3. Shortly after delivery, the pediatricians notice that the baby has numerous hyperpigmented macules on the back. No other primary lesions are seen. The neonate is otherwise normal in appearance and nontoxic appearing. A dermatologist is consulted for a recommendation for further workup or potential biopsy. The dermatologist examines the newborn. He is a well-appearing black boy with skin that is otherwise intact. A few pustules on the back are present that have a collarette of scale. The dermatologist reviews the mother’s prenatal history and the review shows that she was screened for syphilis and had a negative screening test with no other history of infectious diseases. What is the most appropriate next step to confirm your suspicions?

a. do a swab of a pustule and send it for viral culture
b. have his blood drawn and check for signs of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
c. perform a biopsy of a pustule
d. perform a Giemsa stain on a smear of the pustule
e. start treatment with permethrin

4. Which intraoral cysts occur on the alveolar ridge of a neonate?

a. Bohn nodule
b. branchial cleft cyst
c. Epstein pearls
d. median raphe cyst
e. palatal cysts of the newborn

5. Miliaria rubra is associated with inflammation of the sweat glands in what portion of the skin?

a. basement membrane zone
b. dermis
c. dermoepidermal junction
d. intraepidermal
e. subcutis

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on transient benign neonatal skin findings with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet lists benign findings that can be seen in neonates and infants.

Practice Questions

1. The parents of a 2-month-old infant present with their child. They are worried because the infant has “acne” that is not going away. Friends told them to try gentle cleansers and they have avoided using lotions or cream on her face. However, the bumps will not go away. On examination she has papules and pustules. Comedones cannot be identified. What are your next steps?

a. adapalene cream 0.1% every night at bedtime
b. benzoyl peroxide cream 4%
c. benzoyl peroxide wash 2.5%
d. erythromycin gel 2%
e. ketoconazole cream 2% twice daily

2. While in the newborn nursery prior to discharge, the attending pediatrician notices a rash on a 2-day-old neonate who is otherwise completely healthy. The pediatrician consults a dermatologist for his/her opinion. The dermatologist sees erythematous macules with central pustules located predominately on the trunk and proximal extremities. A pustule is unroofed with a blade, the contents smeared on a glass slide, and a Giemsa stain is performed. What is the predominant cell type you would expect to see on histological examination?

a. eosinophils
b. Langerhans cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. no cells are visualized

3. Shortly after delivery, the pediatricians notice that the baby has numerous hyperpigmented macules on the back. No other primary lesions are seen. The neonate is otherwise normal in appearance and nontoxic appearing. A dermatologist is consulted for a recommendation for further workup or potential biopsy. The dermatologist examines the newborn. He is a well-appearing black boy with skin that is otherwise intact. A few pustules on the back are present that have a collarette of scale. The dermatologist reviews the mother’s prenatal history and the review shows that she was screened for syphilis and had a negative screening test with no other history of infectious diseases. What is the most appropriate next step to confirm your suspicions?

a. do a swab of a pustule and send it for viral culture
b. have his blood drawn and check for signs of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
c. perform a biopsy of a pustule
d. perform a Giemsa stain on a smear of the pustule
e. start treatment with permethrin

4. Which intraoral cysts occur on the alveolar ridge of a neonate?

a. Bohn nodule
b. branchial cleft cyst
c. Epstein pearls
d. median raphe cyst
e. palatal cysts of the newborn

5. Miliaria rubra is associated with inflammation of the sweat glands in what portion of the skin?

a. basement membrane zone
b. dermis
c. dermoepidermal junction
d. intraepidermal
e. subcutis

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. The parents of a 2-month-old infant present with their child. They are worried because the infant has “acne” that is not going away. Friends told them to try gentle cleansers and they have avoided using lotions or cream on her face. However, the bumps will not go away. On examination she has papules and pustules. Comedones cannot be identified. What are your next steps?

a. adapalene cream 0.1% every night at bedtime
b. benzoyl peroxide cream 4%
c. benzoyl peroxide wash 2.5%
d. erythromycin gel 2%
e. ketoconazole cream 2% twice daily

2. While in the newborn nursery prior to discharge, the attending pediatrician notices a rash on a 2-day-old neonate who is otherwise completely healthy. The pediatrician consults a dermatologist for his/her opinion. The dermatologist sees erythematous macules with central pustules located predominately on the trunk and proximal extremities. A pustule is unroofed with a blade, the contents smeared on a glass slide, and a Giemsa stain is performed. What is the predominant cell type you would expect to see on histological examination?

a. eosinophils
b. Langerhans cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. no cells are visualized

3. Shortly after delivery, the pediatricians notice that the baby has numerous hyperpigmented macules on the back. No other primary lesions are seen. The neonate is otherwise normal in appearance and nontoxic appearing. A dermatologist is consulted for a recommendation for further workup or potential biopsy. The dermatologist examines the newborn. He is a well-appearing black boy with skin that is otherwise intact. A few pustules on the back are present that have a collarette of scale. The dermatologist reviews the mother’s prenatal history and the review shows that she was screened for syphilis and had a negative screening test with no other history of infectious diseases. What is the most appropriate next step to confirm your suspicions?

a. do a swab of a pustule and send it for viral culture
b. have his blood drawn and check for signs of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
c. perform a biopsy of a pustule
d. perform a Giemsa stain on a smear of the pustule
e. start treatment with permethrin

4. Which intraoral cysts occur on the alveolar ridge of a neonate?

a. Bohn nodule
b. branchial cleft cyst
c. Epstein pearls
d. median raphe cyst
e. palatal cysts of the newborn

5. Miliaria rubra is associated with inflammation of the sweat glands in what portion of the skin?

a. basement membrane zone
b. dermis
c. dermoepidermal junction
d. intraepidermal
e. subcutis

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on transient benign neonatal skin findings with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet lists benign findings that can be seen in neonates and infants.

Practice Questions

1. The parents of a 2-month-old infant present with their child. They are worried because the infant has “acne” that is not going away. Friends told them to try gentle cleansers and they have avoided using lotions or cream on her face. However, the bumps will not go away. On examination she has papules and pustules. Comedones cannot be identified. What are your next steps?

a. adapalene cream 0.1% every night at bedtime
b. benzoyl peroxide cream 4%
c. benzoyl peroxide wash 2.5%
d. erythromycin gel 2%
e. ketoconazole cream 2% twice daily

2. While in the newborn nursery prior to discharge, the attending pediatrician notices a rash on a 2-day-old neonate who is otherwise completely healthy. The pediatrician consults a dermatologist for his/her opinion. The dermatologist sees erythematous macules with central pustules located predominately on the trunk and proximal extremities. A pustule is unroofed with a blade, the contents smeared on a glass slide, and a Giemsa stain is performed. What is the predominant cell type you would expect to see on histological examination?

a. eosinophils
b. Langerhans cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. no cells are visualized

3. Shortly after delivery, the pediatricians notice that the baby has numerous hyperpigmented macules on the back. No other primary lesions are seen. The neonate is otherwise normal in appearance and nontoxic appearing. A dermatologist is consulted for a recommendation for further workup or potential biopsy. The dermatologist examines the newborn. He is a well-appearing black boy with skin that is otherwise intact. A few pustules on the back are present that have a collarette of scale. The dermatologist reviews the mother’s prenatal history and the review shows that she was screened for syphilis and had a negative screening test with no other history of infectious diseases. What is the most appropriate next step to confirm your suspicions?

a. do a swab of a pustule and send it for viral culture
b. have his blood drawn and check for signs of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
c. perform a biopsy of a pustule
d. perform a Giemsa stain on a smear of the pustule
e. start treatment with permethrin

4. Which intraoral cysts occur on the alveolar ridge of a neonate?

a. Bohn nodule
b. branchial cleft cyst
c. Epstein pearls
d. median raphe cyst
e. palatal cysts of the newborn

5. Miliaria rubra is associated with inflammation of the sweat glands in what portion of the skin?

a. basement membrane zone
b. dermis
c. dermoepidermal junction
d. intraepidermal
e. subcutis

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. The parents of a 2-month-old infant present with their child. They are worried because the infant has “acne” that is not going away. Friends told them to try gentle cleansers and they have avoided using lotions or cream on her face. However, the bumps will not go away. On examination she has papules and pustules. Comedones cannot be identified. What are your next steps?

a. adapalene cream 0.1% every night at bedtime
b. benzoyl peroxide cream 4%
c. benzoyl peroxide wash 2.5%
d. erythromycin gel 2%
e. ketoconazole cream 2% twice daily

2. While in the newborn nursery prior to discharge, the attending pediatrician notices a rash on a 2-day-old neonate who is otherwise completely healthy. The pediatrician consults a dermatologist for his/her opinion. The dermatologist sees erythematous macules with central pustules located predominately on the trunk and proximal extremities. A pustule is unroofed with a blade, the contents smeared on a glass slide, and a Giemsa stain is performed. What is the predominant cell type you would expect to see on histological examination?

a. eosinophils
b. Langerhans cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. no cells are visualized

3. Shortly after delivery, the pediatricians notice that the baby has numerous hyperpigmented macules on the back. No other primary lesions are seen. The neonate is otherwise normal in appearance and nontoxic appearing. A dermatologist is consulted for a recommendation for further workup or potential biopsy. The dermatologist examines the newborn. He is a well-appearing black boy with skin that is otherwise intact. A few pustules on the back are present that have a collarette of scale. The dermatologist reviews the mother’s prenatal history and the review shows that she was screened for syphilis and had a negative screening test with no other history of infectious diseases. What is the most appropriate next step to confirm your suspicions?

a. do a swab of a pustule and send it for viral culture
b. have his blood drawn and check for signs of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
c. perform a biopsy of a pustule
d. perform a Giemsa stain on a smear of the pustule
e. start treatment with permethrin

4. Which intraoral cysts occur on the alveolar ridge of a neonate?

a. Bohn nodule
b. branchial cleft cyst
c. Epstein pearls
d. median raphe cyst
e. palatal cysts of the newborn

5. Miliaria rubra is associated with inflammation of the sweat glands in what portion of the skin?

a. basement membrane zone
b. dermis
c. dermoepidermal junction
d. intraepidermal
e. subcutis

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on common hair disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet reviews information about the most common hair disorders, including clinical and histopathological features, trichoscopy, and management of these diseases.

Practice Questions

1. A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a burning sensation and tenderness on the scalp. At physical examination you notice erythematous papules and pustules on the vertex scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. CCSA
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. traction alopecia

2. A 60-year-old woman presents with receding hair loss on the frontal and bitemporal scalp. She has noticed hair loss on her eyebrows. She has a history of oral ulcers. On physical examination there is mild erythema and perifollicular scales on the frontal hairline. A hair pull test is positive in this area. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. androgenetic alopecia
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. frontal fibrosing alopecia
d. telogen effluvium
e. trichotillomania

3. A 5-year-old girl with a history of seasonal allergies and eczema presents with recurrent patchy hair loss on the scalp of 6 months’ duration. Her mother has noticed rapidly progressive hair loss affecting the whole scalp. On trichoscopy, you find yellow dots, broken hairs, and tapering hairs. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. telogen effluvium
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

4. A 30-year-old white woman with history of obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to the clinic with hair loss for the last 3 years. She says she has noticed worsening of the hair loss when she is under stress. She also bites her nails. On physical examination you identify an irregular patch of alopecia with broken hairs on the occipital scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. lichen planopilaris
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

5. A 45-year-old black woman who has a family history of hair loss in her mother presents with tenderness and burning sensation on the vertex scalp. She reports the hair loss was worse after she got a hair relaxer 6 months prior. She uses braids on her scalp and she has not had a relaxer since then. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. CCSA
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. trichotillomania

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a burning sensation and tenderness on the scalp. At physical examination you notice erythematous papules and pustules on the vertex scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. CCSA
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. traction alopecia

2. A 60-year-old woman presents with receding hair loss on the frontal and bitemporal scalp. She has noticed hair loss on her eyebrows. She has a history of oral ulcers. On physical examination there is mild erythema and perifollicular scales on the frontal hairline. A hair pull test is positive in this area. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. androgenetic alopecia
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. frontal fibrosing alopecia
d. telogen effluvium
e. trichotillomania

3. A 5-year-old girl with a history of seasonal allergies and eczema presents with recurrent patchy hair loss on the scalp of 6 months’ duration. Her mother has noticed rapidly progressive hair loss affecting the whole scalp. On trichoscopy, you find yellow dots, broken hairs, and tapering hairs. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. telogen effluvium
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

4. A 30-year-old white woman with history of obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to the clinic with hair loss for the last 3 years. She says she has noticed worsening of the hair loss when she is under stress. She also bites her nails. On physical examination you identify an irregular patch of alopecia with broken hairs on the occipital scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. lichen planopilaris
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

5. A 45-year-old black woman who has a family history of hair loss in her mother presents with tenderness and burning sensation on the vertex scalp. She reports the hair loss was worse after she got a hair relaxer 6 months prior. She uses braids on her scalp and she has not had a relaxer since then. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. CCSA
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. trichotillomania

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on common hair disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet reviews information about the most common hair disorders, including clinical and histopathological features, trichoscopy, and management of these diseases.

Practice Questions

1. A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a burning sensation and tenderness on the scalp. At physical examination you notice erythematous papules and pustules on the vertex scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. CCSA
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. traction alopecia

2. A 60-year-old woman presents with receding hair loss on the frontal and bitemporal scalp. She has noticed hair loss on her eyebrows. She has a history of oral ulcers. On physical examination there is mild erythema and perifollicular scales on the frontal hairline. A hair pull test is positive in this area. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. androgenetic alopecia
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. frontal fibrosing alopecia
d. telogen effluvium
e. trichotillomania

3. A 5-year-old girl with a history of seasonal allergies and eczema presents with recurrent patchy hair loss on the scalp of 6 months’ duration. Her mother has noticed rapidly progressive hair loss affecting the whole scalp. On trichoscopy, you find yellow dots, broken hairs, and tapering hairs. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. telogen effluvium
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

4. A 30-year-old white woman with history of obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to the clinic with hair loss for the last 3 years. She says she has noticed worsening of the hair loss when she is under stress. She also bites her nails. On physical examination you identify an irregular patch of alopecia with broken hairs on the occipital scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. lichen planopilaris
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

5. A 45-year-old black woman who has a family history of hair loss in her mother presents with tenderness and burning sensation on the vertex scalp. She reports the hair loss was worse after she got a hair relaxer 6 months prior. She uses braids on her scalp and she has not had a relaxer since then. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. CCSA
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. trichotillomania

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a burning sensation and tenderness on the scalp. At physical examination you notice erythematous papules and pustules on the vertex scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. CCSA
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. traction alopecia

2. A 60-year-old woman presents with receding hair loss on the frontal and bitemporal scalp. She has noticed hair loss on her eyebrows. She has a history of oral ulcers. On physical examination there is mild erythema and perifollicular scales on the frontal hairline. A hair pull test is positive in this area. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. androgenetic alopecia
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. frontal fibrosing alopecia
d. telogen effluvium
e. trichotillomania

3. A 5-year-old girl with a history of seasonal allergies and eczema presents with recurrent patchy hair loss on the scalp of 6 months’ duration. Her mother has noticed rapidly progressive hair loss affecting the whole scalp. On trichoscopy, you find yellow dots, broken hairs, and tapering hairs. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. telogen effluvium
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

4. A 30-year-old white woman with history of obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to the clinic with hair loss for the last 3 years. She says she has noticed worsening of the hair loss when she is under stress. She also bites her nails. On physical examination you identify an irregular patch of alopecia with broken hairs on the occipital scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. lichen planopilaris
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

5. A 45-year-old black woman who has a family history of hair loss in her mother presents with tenderness and burning sensation on the vertex scalp. She reports the hair loss was worse after she got a hair relaxer 6 months prior. She uses braids on her scalp and she has not had a relaxer since then. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. CCSA
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. trichotillomania

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on common hair disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet reviews information about the most common hair disorders, including clinical and histopathological features, trichoscopy, and management of these diseases.

Practice Questions

1. A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a burning sensation and tenderness on the scalp. At physical examination you notice erythematous papules and pustules on the vertex scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. CCSA
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. traction alopecia

2. A 60-year-old woman presents with receding hair loss on the frontal and bitemporal scalp. She has noticed hair loss on her eyebrows. She has a history of oral ulcers. On physical examination there is mild erythema and perifollicular scales on the frontal hairline. A hair pull test is positive in this area. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. androgenetic alopecia
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. frontal fibrosing alopecia
d. telogen effluvium
e. trichotillomania

3. A 5-year-old girl with a history of seasonal allergies and eczema presents with recurrent patchy hair loss on the scalp of 6 months’ duration. Her mother has noticed rapidly progressive hair loss affecting the whole scalp. On trichoscopy, you find yellow dots, broken hairs, and tapering hairs. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. telogen effluvium
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

4. A 30-year-old white woman with history of obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to the clinic with hair loss for the last 3 years. She says she has noticed worsening of the hair loss when she is under stress. She also bites her nails. On physical examination you identify an irregular patch of alopecia with broken hairs on the occipital scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. lichen planopilaris
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

5. A 45-year-old black woman who has a family history of hair loss in her mother presents with tenderness and burning sensation on the vertex scalp. She reports the hair loss was worse after she got a hair relaxer 6 months prior. She uses braids on her scalp and she has not had a relaxer since then. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. CCSA
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. trichotillomania

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 40-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a burning sensation and tenderness on the scalp. At physical examination you notice erythematous papules and pustules on the vertex scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. CCSA
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. traction alopecia

2. A 60-year-old woman presents with receding hair loss on the frontal and bitemporal scalp. She has noticed hair loss on her eyebrows. She has a history of oral ulcers. On physical examination there is mild erythema and perifollicular scales on the frontal hairline. A hair pull test is positive in this area. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. androgenetic alopecia
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. frontal fibrosing alopecia
d. telogen effluvium
e. trichotillomania

3. A 5-year-old girl with a history of seasonal allergies and eczema presents with recurrent patchy hair loss on the scalp of 6 months’ duration. Her mother has noticed rapidly progressive hair loss affecting the whole scalp. On trichoscopy, you find yellow dots, broken hairs, and tapering hairs. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. telogen effluvium
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

4. A 30-year-old white woman with history of obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to the clinic with hair loss for the last 3 years. She says she has noticed worsening of the hair loss when she is under stress. She also bites her nails. On physical examination you identify an irregular patch of alopecia with broken hairs on the occipital scalp. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. alopecia areata
b. androgenetic alopecia
c. lichen planopilaris
d. traction alopecia
e. trichotillomania

5. A 45-year-old black woman who has a family history of hair loss in her mother presents with tenderness and burning sensation on the vertex scalp. She reports the hair loss was worse after she got a hair relaxer 6 months prior. She uses braids on her scalp and she has not had a relaxer since then. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. CCSA
b. chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. folliculitis decalvans
d. lichen planopilaris
e. trichotillomania

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on Chemical Peels with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet will review the use of chemical peels for dermatologic indications.

Practice Questions

1. Which peel requires neutralization?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which peel contains resorcinol?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. Which peel would be the best treatment of severe actinic photodamage?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

4. Which peel would not be indicated for treatment of melasma in a patient with Fitzpatrick skin type IV?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

5. Which peel is a β-hydroxy acid?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which peel requires neutralization?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which peel contains resorcinol?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. Which peel would be the best treatment of severe actinic photodamage?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

4. Which peel would not be indicated for treatment of melasma in a patient with Fitzpatrick skin type IV?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

5. Which peel is a β-hydroxy acid?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on Chemical Peels with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet will review the use of chemical peels for dermatologic indications.

Practice Questions

1. Which peel requires neutralization?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which peel contains resorcinol?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. Which peel would be the best treatment of severe actinic photodamage?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

4. Which peel would not be indicated for treatment of melasma in a patient with Fitzpatrick skin type IV?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

5. Which peel is a β-hydroxy acid?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which peel requires neutralization?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which peel contains resorcinol?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. Which peel would be the best treatment of severe actinic photodamage?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

4. Which peel would not be indicated for treatment of melasma in a patient with Fitzpatrick skin type IV?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

5. Which peel is a β-hydroxy acid?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on Chemical Peels with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet will review the use of chemical peels for dermatologic indications.

Practice Questions

1. Which peel requires neutralization?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which peel contains resorcinol?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. Which peel would be the best treatment of severe actinic photodamage?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

4. Which peel would not be indicated for treatment of melasma in a patient with Fitzpatrick skin type IV?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

5. Which peel is a β-hydroxy acid?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which peel requires neutralization?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

2. Which peel contains resorcinol?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

3. Which peel would be the best treatment of severe actinic photodamage?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

4. Which peel would not be indicated for treatment of melasma in a patient with Fitzpatrick skin type IV?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

5. Which peel is a β-hydroxy acid?

a. Baker-Gordon

b. glycolic acid

c. Jessner

d. salicylic acid

e. trichloroacetic acid

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on Direct Immunofluorescence Staining Patterns in Blistering Disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet reviews the dermatologic conditions that typically have positive immunofluorescence staining patterns.

Practice Questions

1. Which autoimmune blistering disease shows deposition of immunoglobulin on the floor of salt-split skin?

a. BP
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. PV

2. What medicine is commonly implicated in drug-induced pemphigus?

a. acetaminophen
b. amoxicillin
c. naproxen
d. penicillamine
e. penicillin

3. Which autoimmune blistering disease predominantly shows deposition of IgG on DIF?

a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. IgA pemphigus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatosis
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. porphyria cutanea tarda

4. Which of the following diseases has a negative direct immunofluorescence?

a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. herpes gestationis
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. transient acantholytic dermatosis

5. Which of the following diseases shows a linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction?

a. CP
b. IgA pemphigus
c. PF
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. PV

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which autoimmune blistering disease shows deposition of immunoglobulin on the floor of salt-split skin?
a. BP
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. PV

2. What medicine is commonly implicated in drug-induced pemphigus?
a. acetaminophen
b. amoxicillin
c. naproxen
d. penicillamine
e. penicillin

3. Which autoimmune blistering disease predominantly shows deposition of IgG on DIF?
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. IgA pemphigus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatosis
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. porphyria cutanea tarda

4. Which of the following diseases has a negative direct immunofluorescence?
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. herpes gestationis
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. transient acantholytic dermatosis

5. Which of the following diseases shows a linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction?
a. CP
b. IgA pemphigus
c. PF
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. PV

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on Direct Immunofluorescence Staining Patterns in Blistering Disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet reviews the dermatologic conditions that typically have positive immunofluorescence staining patterns.

Practice Questions

1. Which autoimmune blistering disease shows deposition of immunoglobulin on the floor of salt-split skin?

a. BP
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. PV

2. What medicine is commonly implicated in drug-induced pemphigus?

a. acetaminophen
b. amoxicillin
c. naproxen
d. penicillamine
e. penicillin

3. Which autoimmune blistering disease predominantly shows deposition of IgG on DIF?

a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. IgA pemphigus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatosis
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. porphyria cutanea tarda

4. Which of the following diseases has a negative direct immunofluorescence?

a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. herpes gestationis
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. transient acantholytic dermatosis

5. Which of the following diseases shows a linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction?

a. CP
b. IgA pemphigus
c. PF
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. PV

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which autoimmune blistering disease shows deposition of immunoglobulin on the floor of salt-split skin?
a. BP
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. PV

2. What medicine is commonly implicated in drug-induced pemphigus?
a. acetaminophen
b. amoxicillin
c. naproxen
d. penicillamine
e. penicillin

3. Which autoimmune blistering disease predominantly shows deposition of IgG on DIF?
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. IgA pemphigus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatosis
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. porphyria cutanea tarda

4. Which of the following diseases has a negative direct immunofluorescence?
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. herpes gestationis
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. transient acantholytic dermatosis

5. Which of the following diseases shows a linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction?
a. CP
b. IgA pemphigus
c. PF
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. PV

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on Direct Immunofluorescence Staining Patterns in Blistering Disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This fact sheet reviews the dermatologic conditions that typically have positive immunofluorescence staining patterns.

Practice Questions

1. Which autoimmune blistering disease shows deposition of immunoglobulin on the floor of salt-split skin?

a. BP
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. PV

2. What medicine is commonly implicated in drug-induced pemphigus?

a. acetaminophen
b. amoxicillin
c. naproxen
d. penicillamine
e. penicillin

3. Which autoimmune blistering disease predominantly shows deposition of IgG on DIF?

a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. IgA pemphigus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatosis
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. porphyria cutanea tarda

4. Which of the following diseases has a negative direct immunofluorescence?

a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. herpes gestationis
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. transient acantholytic dermatosis

5. Which of the following diseases shows a linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction?

a. CP
b. IgA pemphigus
c. PF
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. PV

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which autoimmune blistering disease shows deposition of immunoglobulin on the floor of salt-split skin?
a. BP
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. PV

2. What medicine is commonly implicated in drug-induced pemphigus?
a. acetaminophen
b. amoxicillin
c. naproxen
d. penicillamine
e. penicillin

3. Which autoimmune blistering disease predominantly shows deposition of IgG on DIF?
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. IgA pemphigus
c. linear IgA bullous dermatosis
d. paraneoplastic pemphigus
e. porphyria cutanea tarda

4. Which of the following diseases has a negative direct immunofluorescence?
a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. herpes gestationis
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. transient acantholytic dermatosis

5. Which of the following diseases shows a linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction?
a. CP
b. IgA pemphigus
c. PF
d. porphyria cutanea tarda
e. PV

RTEmagicC_fast_facts_photosensitivity.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on adult photosensitivity disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review important disorders in the adult population where photosensitivity is a major feature.

Practice Questions

1. A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism and new-onset diarrhea developed a painful, scaly, erythematous, and hyperpigmented eruption on the photoexposed areas on the chest and hands. A similar presentation can occur in patients on which medications?

a. azathioprine

b. fluorouracil

c. pyrazinamide

d. A and C only

e. all of the above

2. A college student presents with a streaky blistering rash on the arms and legs. He is on summer vacation and recently started a side job of mowing lawns. This phototoxic eruption requires which light spectrum?

a. 200–290 nm

b. 290–315 nm

c. 315–400 nm

d. 400–700 nm

e. none of the above

3. A middle-aged man with psoriasis complains of new onset of redness of the hands and face that occurs within hours of going outside. The patient may be taking which medications?

a. doxepin

b. NSAIDS

c. tar shampoo

d. terbinafine

e. A, B, and C

f. B, C, and D

4. A patient with metastatic melanoma was just started on vemurafenib. Which side effect is most likely to occur from this medication?

a. cough

b. myalgia

c. panniculitis

d. photosensitivity

e. squamous cell carcinoma

5. A 30-year-old black woman reports an itchy, flesh-colored, bumpy rash on the extensor forearms that appears 24 hours after sun exposure. There was no prior exposure to systemic or topical photoallergens. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?

a. classified as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

b. condition improves with subsequent exposures (hardening)

c. histology is characterized by mucin deposition

d. rash is generally nonscarring

e. similar reaction localized to the helices may occur in adolescent boys

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism and new-onset diarrhea developed a painful, scaly, erythematous, and hyperpigmented eruption on the photoexposed areas on the chest and hands. A similar presentation can occur in patients on which medications?

a. azathioprine

b. fluorouracil

c. pyrazinamide

d. A and C only

e. all of the above

2. A college student presents with a streaky blistering rash on the arms and legs. He is on summer vacation and recently started a side job of mowing lawns. This phototoxic eruption requires which light spectrum?

a. 200–290 nm

b. 290–315 nm

c. 315–400 nm

d. 400–700 nm

e. none of the above

3. A middle-aged man with psoriasis complains of new onset of redness of the hands and face that occurs within hours of going outside. The patient may be taking which medications?

a. doxepin

b. NSAIDS

c. tar shampoo

d. terbinafine

e. A, B, and C

f. B, C, and D

4. A patient with metastatic melanoma was just started on vemurafenib. Which side effect is most likely to occur from this medication?

a. cough

b. myalgia

c. panniculitis

d. photosensitivity

e. squamous cell carcinoma

5. A 30-year-old black woman reports an itchy, flesh-colored, bumpy rash on the extensor forearms that appears 24 hours after sun exposure. There was no prior exposure to systemic or topical photoallergens. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?

a. classified as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

b. condition improves with subsequent exposures (hardening)

c. histology is characterized by mucin deposition

d. rash is generally nonscarring

e. similar reaction localized to the helices may occur in adolescent boys

RTEmagicC_fast_facts_photosensitivity.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on adult photosensitivity disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review important disorders in the adult population where photosensitivity is a major feature.

Practice Questions

1. A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism and new-onset diarrhea developed a painful, scaly, erythematous, and hyperpigmented eruption on the photoexposed areas on the chest and hands. A similar presentation can occur in patients on which medications?

a. azathioprine

b. fluorouracil

c. pyrazinamide

d. A and C only

e. all of the above

2. A college student presents with a streaky blistering rash on the arms and legs. He is on summer vacation and recently started a side job of mowing lawns. This phototoxic eruption requires which light spectrum?

a. 200–290 nm

b. 290–315 nm

c. 315–400 nm

d. 400–700 nm

e. none of the above

3. A middle-aged man with psoriasis complains of new onset of redness of the hands and face that occurs within hours of going outside. The patient may be taking which medications?

a. doxepin

b. NSAIDS

c. tar shampoo

d. terbinafine

e. A, B, and C

f. B, C, and D

4. A patient with metastatic melanoma was just started on vemurafenib. Which side effect is most likely to occur from this medication?

a. cough

b. myalgia

c. panniculitis

d. photosensitivity

e. squamous cell carcinoma

5. A 30-year-old black woman reports an itchy, flesh-colored, bumpy rash on the extensor forearms that appears 24 hours after sun exposure. There was no prior exposure to systemic or topical photoallergens. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?

a. classified as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

b. condition improves with subsequent exposures (hardening)

c. histology is characterized by mucin deposition

d. rash is generally nonscarring

e. similar reaction localized to the helices may occur in adolescent boys

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism and new-onset diarrhea developed a painful, scaly, erythematous, and hyperpigmented eruption on the photoexposed areas on the chest and hands. A similar presentation can occur in patients on which medications?

a. azathioprine

b. fluorouracil

c. pyrazinamide

d. A and C only

e. all of the above

2. A college student presents with a streaky blistering rash on the arms and legs. He is on summer vacation and recently started a side job of mowing lawns. This phototoxic eruption requires which light spectrum?

a. 200–290 nm

b. 290–315 nm

c. 315–400 nm

d. 400–700 nm

e. none of the above

3. A middle-aged man with psoriasis complains of new onset of redness of the hands and face that occurs within hours of going outside. The patient may be taking which medications?

a. doxepin

b. NSAIDS

c. tar shampoo

d. terbinafine

e. A, B, and C

f. B, C, and D

4. A patient with metastatic melanoma was just started on vemurafenib. Which side effect is most likely to occur from this medication?

a. cough

b. myalgia

c. panniculitis

d. photosensitivity

e. squamous cell carcinoma

5. A 30-year-old black woman reports an itchy, flesh-colored, bumpy rash on the extensor forearms that appears 24 hours after sun exposure. There was no prior exposure to systemic or topical photoallergens. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?

a. classified as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

b. condition improves with subsequent exposures (hardening)

c. histology is characterized by mucin deposition

d. rash is generally nonscarring

e. similar reaction localized to the helices may occur in adolescent boys

RTEmagicC_fast_facts_photosensitivity.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on adult photosensitivity disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review important disorders in the adult population where photosensitivity is a major feature.

Practice Questions

1. A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism and new-onset diarrhea developed a painful, scaly, erythematous, and hyperpigmented eruption on the photoexposed areas on the chest and hands. A similar presentation can occur in patients on which medications?

a. azathioprine

b. fluorouracil

c. pyrazinamide

d. A and C only

e. all of the above

2. A college student presents with a streaky blistering rash on the arms and legs. He is on summer vacation and recently started a side job of mowing lawns. This phototoxic eruption requires which light spectrum?

a. 200–290 nm

b. 290–315 nm

c. 315–400 nm

d. 400–700 nm

e. none of the above

3. A middle-aged man with psoriasis complains of new onset of redness of the hands and face that occurs within hours of going outside. The patient may be taking which medications?

a. doxepin

b. NSAIDS

c. tar shampoo

d. terbinafine

e. A, B, and C

f. B, C, and D

4. A patient with metastatic melanoma was just started on vemurafenib. Which side effect is most likely to occur from this medication?

a. cough

b. myalgia

c. panniculitis

d. photosensitivity

e. squamous cell carcinoma

5. A 30-year-old black woman reports an itchy, flesh-colored, bumpy rash on the extensor forearms that appears 24 hours after sun exposure. There was no prior exposure to systemic or topical photoallergens. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?

a. classified as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

b. condition improves with subsequent exposures (hardening)

c. histology is characterized by mucin deposition

d. rash is generally nonscarring

e. similar reaction localized to the helices may occur in adolescent boys

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism and new-onset diarrhea developed a painful, scaly, erythematous, and hyperpigmented eruption on the photoexposed areas on the chest and hands. A similar presentation can occur in patients on which medications?

a. azathioprine

b. fluorouracil

c. pyrazinamide

d. A and C only

e. all of the above

2. A college student presents with a streaky blistering rash on the arms and legs. He is on summer vacation and recently started a side job of mowing lawns. This phototoxic eruption requires which light spectrum?

a. 200–290 nm

b. 290–315 nm

c. 315–400 nm

d. 400–700 nm

e. none of the above

3. A middle-aged man with psoriasis complains of new onset of redness of the hands and face that occurs within hours of going outside. The patient may be taking which medications?

a. doxepin

b. NSAIDS

c. tar shampoo

d. terbinafine

e. A, B, and C

f. B, C, and D

4. A patient with metastatic melanoma was just started on vemurafenib. Which side effect is most likely to occur from this medication?

a. cough

b. myalgia

c. panniculitis

d. photosensitivity

e. squamous cell carcinoma

5. A 30-year-old black woman reports an itchy, flesh-colored, bumpy rash on the extensor forearms that appears 24 hours after sun exposure. There was no prior exposure to systemic or topical photoallergens. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?

a. classified as a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

b. condition improves with subsequent exposures (hardening)

c. histology is characterized by mucin deposition

d. rash is generally nonscarring

e. similar reaction localized to the helices may occur in adolescent boys

RTEmagicC_fast_facts_photosensitivity.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on pediatric photosensitivity disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review important disorders in the pediatric population where photosensitivity is a major feature

Practice Questions

1. Which photosensitivity disorder is characterized by decreased immunoglobulin-mediated immunity?

a. Bloom syndrome

b. Cockayne syndrome

c. hydroa vacciniforme

d. Kindler syndrome

e. poikiloderma congenitale

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate treatment for a young Mexican girl with cheilitis and treatment-resistant chronic pruritic crusted papules and scars on both sun-exposed and nonexposed sites?

a. oral isotretinoin

b. oral prednisone

c. oral thalidomide

d. topical calcineurin inhibitors

e. topical corticosteroids

3. Which gene is mutated in a patient with a history of congenital acral blistering and then gradual onset of cutaneous atrophy and fragility, oral lesions, and photosensitivity?

a. DHCR7

b. KIND1

c. RECQL4

d. SLC6A19

e. XPD

4. Which photosensitivity disorder is associated with an increased risk for osteosarcoma?

a. actinic prurigo

b. Rothmund-Thomson syndrome

c. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

d. trichothiodystrophy 

e. xeroderma pigmentosum

5. All of the following are features seen in De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome except:

a. ataxia

b. basal ganglion calcification

c. deafness

d. hypogonadism

e. short stature

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers
1. Which photosensitivity disorder is characterized by decreased immunoglobulin-mediated immunity?

a. Bloom syndrome

b. Cockayne syndrome

c. hydroa vacciniforme

d. Kindler syndrome

e. poikiloderma congenitale

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate treatment for a young Mexican girl with cheilitis and treatment-resistant chronic pruritic crusted papules and scars on both sun-exposed and nonexposed sites?

a. oral isotretinoin

b. oral prednisone

c. oral thalidomide

d. topical calcineurin inhibitors

e. topical corticosteroids

3. Which gene is mutated in a patient with a history of congenital acral blistering and then gradual onset of cutaneous atrophy and fragility, oral lesions, and photosensitivity?

a. DHCR7

b. KIND1

c. RECQL4

d. SLC6A19

e. XPD

4. Which photosensitivity disorder is associated with an increased risk for osteosarcoma?

a. actinic prurigo

b. Rothmund-Thomson syndrome

c. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

d. trichothiodystrophy 

e. xeroderma pigmentosum

5. All of the following are features seen in De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome except:

a. ataxia

b. basal ganglion calcification

c. deafness

d. hypogonadism

e. short stature

RTEmagicC_fast_facts_photosensitivity.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on pediatric photosensitivity disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review important disorders in the pediatric population where photosensitivity is a major feature

Practice Questions

1. Which photosensitivity disorder is characterized by decreased immunoglobulin-mediated immunity?

a. Bloom syndrome

b. Cockayne syndrome

c. hydroa vacciniforme

d. Kindler syndrome

e. poikiloderma congenitale

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate treatment for a young Mexican girl with cheilitis and treatment-resistant chronic pruritic crusted papules and scars on both sun-exposed and nonexposed sites?

a. oral isotretinoin

b. oral prednisone

c. oral thalidomide

d. topical calcineurin inhibitors

e. topical corticosteroids

3. Which gene is mutated in a patient with a history of congenital acral blistering and then gradual onset of cutaneous atrophy and fragility, oral lesions, and photosensitivity?

a. DHCR7

b. KIND1

c. RECQL4

d. SLC6A19

e. XPD

4. Which photosensitivity disorder is associated with an increased risk for osteosarcoma?

a. actinic prurigo

b. Rothmund-Thomson syndrome

c. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

d. trichothiodystrophy 

e. xeroderma pigmentosum

5. All of the following are features seen in De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome except:

a. ataxia

b. basal ganglion calcification

c. deafness

d. hypogonadism

e. short stature

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers
1. Which photosensitivity disorder is characterized by decreased immunoglobulin-mediated immunity?

a. Bloom syndrome

b. Cockayne syndrome

c. hydroa vacciniforme

d. Kindler syndrome

e. poikiloderma congenitale

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate treatment for a young Mexican girl with cheilitis and treatment-resistant chronic pruritic crusted papules and scars on both sun-exposed and nonexposed sites?

a. oral isotretinoin

b. oral prednisone

c. oral thalidomide

d. topical calcineurin inhibitors

e. topical corticosteroids

3. Which gene is mutated in a patient with a history of congenital acral blistering and then gradual onset of cutaneous atrophy and fragility, oral lesions, and photosensitivity?

a. DHCR7

b. KIND1

c. RECQL4

d. SLC6A19

e. XPD

4. Which photosensitivity disorder is associated with an increased risk for osteosarcoma?

a. actinic prurigo

b. Rothmund-Thomson syndrome

c. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

d. trichothiodystrophy 

e. xeroderma pigmentosum

5. All of the following are features seen in De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome except:

a. ataxia

b. basal ganglion calcification

c. deafness

d. hypogonadism

e. short stature

RTEmagicC_fast_facts_photosensitivity.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on pediatric photosensitivity disorders with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review important disorders in the pediatric population where photosensitivity is a major feature

Practice Questions

1. Which photosensitivity disorder is characterized by decreased immunoglobulin-mediated immunity?

a. Bloom syndrome

b. Cockayne syndrome

c. hydroa vacciniforme

d. Kindler syndrome

e. poikiloderma congenitale

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate treatment for a young Mexican girl with cheilitis and treatment-resistant chronic pruritic crusted papules and scars on both sun-exposed and nonexposed sites?

a. oral isotretinoin

b. oral prednisone

c. oral thalidomide

d. topical calcineurin inhibitors

e. topical corticosteroids

3. Which gene is mutated in a patient with a history of congenital acral blistering and then gradual onset of cutaneous atrophy and fragility, oral lesions, and photosensitivity?

a. DHCR7

b. KIND1

c. RECQL4

d. SLC6A19

e. XPD

4. Which photosensitivity disorder is associated with an increased risk for osteosarcoma?

a. actinic prurigo

b. Rothmund-Thomson syndrome

c. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

d. trichothiodystrophy 

e. xeroderma pigmentosum

5. All of the following are features seen in De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome except:

a. ataxia

b. basal ganglion calcification

c. deafness

d. hypogonadism

e. short stature

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers
1. Which photosensitivity disorder is characterized by decreased immunoglobulin-mediated immunity?

a. Bloom syndrome

b. Cockayne syndrome

c. hydroa vacciniforme

d. Kindler syndrome

e. poikiloderma congenitale

2. Which of the following is an inappropriate treatment for a young Mexican girl with cheilitis and treatment-resistant chronic pruritic crusted papules and scars on both sun-exposed and nonexposed sites?

a. oral isotretinoin

b. oral prednisone

c. oral thalidomide

d. topical calcineurin inhibitors

e. topical corticosteroids

3. Which gene is mutated in a patient with a history of congenital acral blistering and then gradual onset of cutaneous atrophy and fragility, oral lesions, and photosensitivity?

a. DHCR7

b. KIND1

c. RECQL4

d. SLC6A19

e. XPD

4. Which photosensitivity disorder is associated with an increased risk for osteosarcoma?

a. actinic prurigo

b. Rothmund-Thomson syndrome

c. Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

d. trichothiodystrophy 

e. xeroderma pigmentosum

5. All of the following are features seen in De Sanctis-Cacchione syndrome except:

a. ataxia

b. basal ganglion calcification

c. deafness

d. hypogonadism

e. short stature

RTEmagicC_CT_0616_EyeFindings.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on eye findings in dermatologic conditions with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review ophthalmologic findings associated with inherited dermatologic conditions.

Practice Questions

1. Which type of EDS is most characteristically associated with blue sclerae and globe rupture?

a. arthrochalasia

b. classical

c. dermatosparaxis

d. hypermobility

e. kyphoscoliosis

2. Ankyloblepharon may be associated with mutation of which gene?

a. fibrillin 1

b. LMX1B

c. NF1

d. p53

e. p63

3. Which is a characteristic ocular tumor in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

a. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

b. phakoma

c. pigmented iris hamartoma

d. pinguecula

e. pterygium

4. Which syndrome is not associated with blue sclerae?

a. EDS type 6

b. lipoid proteinosis

c. Marfan syndrome

d. osteogenesis imperfecta type II

e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum

5. Which term describes white spots at the periphery of the iris?

a. Brushfield spots

b. coloboma

c. Kayser-Fleischer rings

d. Lester iris

e. Lisch nodules

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which type of EDS is most characteristically associated with blue sclerae and globe rupture?

a. arthrochalasia

b. classical

c. dermatosparaxis

d. hypermobility

e. kyphoscoliosis

2. Ankyloblepharon may be associated with mutation of which gene?

a. fibrillin 1

b. LMX1B

c. NF1

d. p53

e. p63

3. Which is a characteristic ocular tumor in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

a. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

b. phakoma

c. pigmented iris hamartoma

d. pinguecula

e. pterygium

4. Which syndrome is not associated with blue sclerae?

a. EDS type 6

b. lipoid proteinosis

c. Marfan syndrome

d. osteogenesis imperfecta type II

e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum

5. Which term describes white spots at the periphery of the iris?

a. Brushfield spots

b. coloboma

c. Kayser-Fleischer rings

d. Lester iris

e. Lisch nodules

RTEmagicC_CT_0616_EyeFindings.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on eye findings in dermatologic conditions with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review ophthalmologic findings associated with inherited dermatologic conditions.

Practice Questions

1. Which type of EDS is most characteristically associated with blue sclerae and globe rupture?

a. arthrochalasia

b. classical

c. dermatosparaxis

d. hypermobility

e. kyphoscoliosis

2. Ankyloblepharon may be associated with mutation of which gene?

a. fibrillin 1

b. LMX1B

c. NF1

d. p53

e. p63

3. Which is a characteristic ocular tumor in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

a. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

b. phakoma

c. pigmented iris hamartoma

d. pinguecula

e. pterygium

4. Which syndrome is not associated with blue sclerae?

a. EDS type 6

b. lipoid proteinosis

c. Marfan syndrome

d. osteogenesis imperfecta type II

e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum

5. Which term describes white spots at the periphery of the iris?

a. Brushfield spots

b. coloboma

c. Kayser-Fleischer rings

d. Lester iris

e. Lisch nodules

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which type of EDS is most characteristically associated with blue sclerae and globe rupture?

a. arthrochalasia

b. classical

c. dermatosparaxis

d. hypermobility

e. kyphoscoliosis

2. Ankyloblepharon may be associated with mutation of which gene?

a. fibrillin 1

b. LMX1B

c. NF1

d. p53

e. p63

3. Which is a characteristic ocular tumor in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

a. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

b. phakoma

c. pigmented iris hamartoma

d. pinguecula

e. pterygium

4. Which syndrome is not associated with blue sclerae?

a. EDS type 6

b. lipoid proteinosis

c. Marfan syndrome

d. osteogenesis imperfecta type II

e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum

5. Which term describes white spots at the periphery of the iris?

a. Brushfield spots

b. coloboma

c. Kayser-Fleischer rings

d. Lester iris

e. Lisch nodules

RTEmagicC_CT_0616_EyeFindings.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on eye findings in dermatologic conditions with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review ophthalmologic findings associated with inherited dermatologic conditions.

Practice Questions

1. Which type of EDS is most characteristically associated with blue sclerae and globe rupture?

a. arthrochalasia

b. classical

c. dermatosparaxis

d. hypermobility

e. kyphoscoliosis

2. Ankyloblepharon may be associated with mutation of which gene?

a. fibrillin 1

b. LMX1B

c. NF1

d. p53

e. p63

3. Which is a characteristic ocular tumor in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

a. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

b. phakoma

c. pigmented iris hamartoma

d. pinguecula

e. pterygium

4. Which syndrome is not associated with blue sclerae?

a. EDS type 6

b. lipoid proteinosis

c. Marfan syndrome

d. osteogenesis imperfecta type II

e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum

5. Which term describes white spots at the periphery of the iris?

a. Brushfield spots

b. coloboma

c. Kayser-Fleischer rings

d. Lester iris

e. Lisch nodules

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which type of EDS is most characteristically associated with blue sclerae and globe rupture?

a. arthrochalasia

b. classical

c. dermatosparaxis

d. hypermobility

e. kyphoscoliosis

2. Ankyloblepharon may be associated with mutation of which gene?

a. fibrillin 1

b. LMX1B

c. NF1

d. p53

e. p63

3. Which is a characteristic ocular tumor in patients with tuberous sclerosis complex?

a. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium

b. phakoma

c. pigmented iris hamartoma

d. pinguecula

e. pterygium

4. Which syndrome is not associated with blue sclerae?

a. EDS type 6

b. lipoid proteinosis

c. Marfan syndrome

d. osteogenesis imperfecta type II

e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum

5. Which term describes white spots at the periphery of the iris?

a. Brushfield spots

b. coloboma

c. Kayser-Fleischer rings

d. Lester iris

e. Lisch nodules

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on drug reactions with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review common drug reactions including their clinical presentation, associated signs, symptoms and laboratory abnormalities, time of onset, implicated drugs, pathology, and treatment and mortality.

Practice Questions

1. RegiSCAR is a scoring method used for what drug reaction?

a. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for DRESS/DIHS
b. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for FDE
c. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for SJS
d. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for AGEP
e. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for SJS

2. DRESS/DIHS is associated with what mortality rate?

a. 0%
b. 1%–5%
c. 5%–10%
d. 5%–30%
e. 10%–40%

3. Unlike other drug eruptions that typically develop 1 to 2 weeks after drug initiation, which drug eruption has a relatively late onset, often 3 weeks after drug initiation?

a. AGEP
b. DRESS/DIHS
c. exanthematous/morbilliform drug eruption
d. FDE
e. SJS

4. A patient develops a morbilliform eruption 14 days after starting an anticonvulsant. What additional finding(s) make DRESS/DIHS more likely than a common morbilliform drug rash?

a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphadenopathy
c. prominent facial edema
d. A and C
e. B and C

5. Which drug is commonly implicated in the nonpigmenting variant of FDE?

a. barbiturates
b. carbamazepine
c. NSAIDs
d. pseudoephedrine
e. sulfonamides

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. RegiSCAR is a scoring method used for what drug reaction?

a. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for DRESS/DIHS
b. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for FDE
c. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for SJS
d. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for AGEP
e. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for SJS
 

2. DRESS/DIHS is associated with what mortality rate?

a. 0%
b. 1%–5%
c. 5%–10%
d. 5%–30%
e. 10%–40%
 

3. Unlike other drug eruptions that typically develop 1 to 2 weeks after drug initiation, which drug eruption has a relatively late onset, often 3 weeks after drug initiation?

a. AGEP
b. DRESS/DIHS
c. exanthematous/morbilliform drug eruption
d. FDE
e. SJS
 

4. A patient develops a morbilliform eruption 14 days after starting an anticonvulsant. What additional finding(s) make DRESS/DIHS more likely than a common morbilliform drug rash?

a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphadenopath
c. prominent facial edema
d. A and C
e. B and C
 

5. Which drug is commonly implicated in the nonpigmenting variant of FDE?

a. barbiturates
b. carbamazepine
c. NSAIDs
d. pseudoephedrine
e. sulfonamides

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on drug reactions with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review common drug reactions including their clinical presentation, associated signs, symptoms and laboratory abnormalities, time of onset, implicated drugs, pathology, and treatment and mortality.

Practice Questions

1. RegiSCAR is a scoring method used for what drug reaction?

a. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for DRESS/DIHS
b. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for FDE
c. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for SJS
d. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for AGEP
e. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for SJS

2. DRESS/DIHS is associated with what mortality rate?

a. 0%
b. 1%–5%
c. 5%–10%
d. 5%–30%
e. 10%–40%

3. Unlike other drug eruptions that typically develop 1 to 2 weeks after drug initiation, which drug eruption has a relatively late onset, often 3 weeks after drug initiation?

a. AGEP
b. DRESS/DIHS
c. exanthematous/morbilliform drug eruption
d. FDE
e. SJS

4. A patient develops a morbilliform eruption 14 days after starting an anticonvulsant. What additional finding(s) make DRESS/DIHS more likely than a common morbilliform drug rash?

a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphadenopathy
c. prominent facial edema
d. A and C
e. B and C

5. Which drug is commonly implicated in the nonpigmenting variant of FDE?

a. barbiturates
b. carbamazepine
c. NSAIDs
d. pseudoephedrine
e. sulfonamides

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. RegiSCAR is a scoring method used for what drug reaction?

a. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for DRESS/DIHS
b. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for FDE
c. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for SJS
d. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for AGEP
e. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for SJS
 

2. DRESS/DIHS is associated with what mortality rate?

a. 0%
b. 1%–5%
c. 5%–10%
d. 5%–30%
e. 10%–40%
 

3. Unlike other drug eruptions that typically develop 1 to 2 weeks after drug initiation, which drug eruption has a relatively late onset, often 3 weeks after drug initiation?

a. AGEP
b. DRESS/DIHS
c. exanthematous/morbilliform drug eruption
d. FDE
e. SJS
 

4. A patient develops a morbilliform eruption 14 days after starting an anticonvulsant. What additional finding(s) make DRESS/DIHS more likely than a common morbilliform drug rash?

a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphadenopath
c. prominent facial edema
d. A and C
e. B and C
 

5. Which drug is commonly implicated in the nonpigmenting variant of FDE?

a. barbiturates
b. carbamazepine
c. NSAIDs
d. pseudoephedrine
e. sulfonamides

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on drug reactions with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet will review common drug reactions including their clinical presentation, associated signs, symptoms and laboratory abnormalities, time of onset, implicated drugs, pathology, and treatment and mortality.

Practice Questions

1. RegiSCAR is a scoring method used for what drug reaction?

a. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for DRESS/DIHS
b. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for FDE
c. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for SJS
d. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for AGEP
e. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for SJS

2. DRESS/DIHS is associated with what mortality rate?

a. 0%
b. 1%–5%
c. 5%–10%
d. 5%–30%
e. 10%–40%

3. Unlike other drug eruptions that typically develop 1 to 2 weeks after drug initiation, which drug eruption has a relatively late onset, often 3 weeks after drug initiation?

a. AGEP
b. DRESS/DIHS
c. exanthematous/morbilliform drug eruption
d. FDE
e. SJS

4. A patient develops a morbilliform eruption 14 days after starting an anticonvulsant. What additional finding(s) make DRESS/DIHS more likely than a common morbilliform drug rash?

a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphadenopathy
c. prominent facial edema
d. A and C
e. B and C

5. Which drug is commonly implicated in the nonpigmenting variant of FDE?

a. barbiturates
b. carbamazepine
c. NSAIDs
d. pseudoephedrine
e. sulfonamides

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. RegiSCAR is a scoring method used for what drug reaction?

a. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for DRESS/DIHS
b. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for FDE
c. RegiSCAR is a diagnostic scoring method for SJS
d. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for AGEP
e. RegiSCAR predicts mortality rate for SJS
 

2. DRESS/DIHS is associated with what mortality rate?

a. 0%
b. 1%–5%
c. 5%–10%
d. 5%–30%
e. 10%–40%
 

3. Unlike other drug eruptions that typically develop 1 to 2 weeks after drug initiation, which drug eruption has a relatively late onset, often 3 weeks after drug initiation?

a. AGEP
b. DRESS/DIHS
c. exanthematous/morbilliform drug eruption
d. FDE
e. SJS
 

4. A patient develops a morbilliform eruption 14 days after starting an anticonvulsant. What additional finding(s) make DRESS/DIHS more likely than a common morbilliform drug rash?

a. hypocalcemia
b. lymphadenopath
c. prominent facial edema
d. A and C
e. B and C
 

5. Which drug is commonly implicated in the nonpigmenting variant of FDE?

a. barbiturates
b. carbamazepine
c. NSAIDs
d. pseudoephedrine
e. sulfonamides

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on sexually transmitted diseases with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet offers a comprehensive review of the etiology, clinical findings, and management of common STDs.

Practice Questions

1. A 44-year-old woman presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and headaches. She has noticed a rash on her palms and soles that is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. secondary syphilis

2. A 37-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent discharge. What is the appropriate test for diagnosis?

a. dark field microscopy

b. Giemsa staining

c. McCoy culture

d. porphyrin test (hemin [X factor]) culture

e. Thayer-Martin medium

3. Which disease in the neonate is preventable with silver nitrate drops?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. syphilis

4. A 22-year-old pregnant woman develops a painless indurated ulcer on the vagina. What is the treatment of choice?

a. azithromycin

b. ceftriaxone

c. doxycycline

d. penicillin G

e. TMP-SMX

5. What sexually transmitted disease facilitates the transmission of HIV?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. lymphogranuloma venereum

d. syphilis

e. all of the above

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 44-year-old woman presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and headaches. She has noticed a rash on her palms and soles that is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. secondary syphilis

2. A 37-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent discharge. What is the appropriate test for diagnosis?

a. dark field microscopy

b. Giemsa staining

c. McCoy culture

d. porphyrin test (hemin [X factor]) culture

e. Thayer-Martin medium

3. Which disease in the neonate is preventable with silver nitrate drops?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. syphilis

4. A 22-year-old pregnant woman develops a painless indurated ulcer on the vagina. What is the treatment of choice?

a. azithromycin

b. ceftriaxone

c. doxycycline

d. penicillin G

e. TMP-SMX

5. What sexually transmitted disease facilitates the transmission of HIV?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. lymphogranuloma venereum

d. syphilis

e. all of the above

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on sexually transmitted diseases with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet offers a comprehensive review of the etiology, clinical findings, and management of common STDs.

Practice Questions

1. A 44-year-old woman presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and headaches. She has noticed a rash on her palms and soles that is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. secondary syphilis

2. A 37-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent discharge. What is the appropriate test for diagnosis?

a. dark field microscopy

b. Giemsa staining

c. McCoy culture

d. porphyrin test (hemin [X factor]) culture

e. Thayer-Martin medium

3. Which disease in the neonate is preventable with silver nitrate drops?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. syphilis

4. A 22-year-old pregnant woman develops a painless indurated ulcer on the vagina. What is the treatment of choice?

a. azithromycin

b. ceftriaxone

c. doxycycline

d. penicillin G

e. TMP-SMX

5. What sexually transmitted disease facilitates the transmission of HIV?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. lymphogranuloma venereum

d. syphilis

e. all of the above

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 44-year-old woman presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and headaches. She has noticed a rash on her palms and soles that is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. secondary syphilis

2. A 37-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent discharge. What is the appropriate test for diagnosis?

a. dark field microscopy

b. Giemsa staining

c. McCoy culture

d. porphyrin test (hemin [X factor]) culture

e. Thayer-Martin medium

3. Which disease in the neonate is preventable with silver nitrate drops?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. syphilis

4. A 22-year-old pregnant woman develops a painless indurated ulcer on the vagina. What is the treatment of choice?

a. azithromycin

b. ceftriaxone

c. doxycycline

d. penicillin G

e. TMP-SMX

5. What sexually transmitted disease facilitates the transmission of HIV?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. lymphogranuloma venereum

d. syphilis

e. all of the above

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on sexually transmitted diseases with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet offers a comprehensive review of the etiology, clinical findings, and management of common STDs.

Practice Questions

1. A 44-year-old woman presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and headaches. She has noticed a rash on her palms and soles that is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. secondary syphilis

2. A 37-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent discharge. What is the appropriate test for diagnosis?

a. dark field microscopy

b. Giemsa staining

c. McCoy culture

d. porphyrin test (hemin [X factor]) culture

e. Thayer-Martin medium

3. Which disease in the neonate is preventable with silver nitrate drops?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. syphilis

4. A 22-year-old pregnant woman develops a painless indurated ulcer on the vagina. What is the treatment of choice?

a. azithromycin

b. ceftriaxone

c. doxycycline

d. penicillin G

e. TMP-SMX

5. What sexually transmitted disease facilitates the transmission of HIV?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. lymphogranuloma venereum

d. syphilis

e. all of the above

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. A 44-year-old woman presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, and headaches. She has noticed a rash on her palms and soles that is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. secondary syphilis

2. A 37-year-old man presents with dysuria and purulent discharge. What is the appropriate test for diagnosis?

a. dark field microscopy

b. Giemsa staining

c. McCoy culture

d. porphyrin test (hemin [X factor]) culture

e. Thayer-Martin medium

3. Which disease in the neonate is preventable with silver nitrate drops?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. granuloma inguinale

d. lymphogranuloma venereum

e. syphilis

4. A 22-year-old pregnant woman develops a painless indurated ulcer on the vagina. What is the treatment of choice?

a. azithromycin

b. ceftriaxone

c. doxycycline

d. penicillin G

e. TMP-SMX

5. What sexually transmitted disease facilitates the transmission of HIV?

a. chancroid

b. gonorrhea

c. lymphogranuloma venereum

d. syphilis

e. all of the above

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on biologics for psoriasis with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet discusses the current US Food and Drug Administration–approved biologic medications for psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis, including the mechanism of action, dosing, and side effects.

Practice Questions

1. Which biologic is administered as an intravenous infusion?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

2. Which biologic is dosed based on body weight?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

3. Which biologic has been shown to worsen existing Crohn disease?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

4. Which biologic is a fusion protein?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

5. Which biologic has been shown to cause reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which biologic is administered as an intravenous infusion?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

2. Which biologic is dosed based on body weight?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

3. Which biologic has been shown to worsen existing Crohn disease?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

4. Which biologic is a fusion protein?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

5. Which biologic has been shown to cause reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on biologics for psoriasis with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet discusses the current US Food and Drug Administration–approved biologic medications for psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis, including the mechanism of action, dosing, and side effects.

Practice Questions

1. Which biologic is administered as an intravenous infusion?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

2. Which biologic is dosed based on body weight?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

3. Which biologic has been shown to worsen existing Crohn disease?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

4. Which biologic is a fusion protein?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

5. Which biologic has been shown to cause reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which biologic is administered as an intravenous infusion?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

2. Which biologic is dosed based on body weight?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

3. Which biologic has been shown to worsen existing Crohn disease?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

4. Which biologic is a fusion protein?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

5. Which biologic has been shown to cause reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

RTEmagicC_0416_FSheet_Biologics_PsoriasisTN_2_02.jpg.jpg

Review the PDF of the fact sheet on biologics for psoriasis with board-relevant, easy-to-review material. This month's fact sheet discusses the current US Food and Drug Administration–approved biologic medications for psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis, including the mechanism of action, dosing, and side effects.

Practice Questions

1. Which biologic is administered as an intravenous infusion?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

2. Which biologic is dosed based on body weight?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

3. Which biologic has been shown to worsen existing Crohn disease?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

4. Which biologic is a fusion protein?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

5. Which biologic has been shown to cause reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

Answers to practice questions provided on next page

Practice Question Answers

1. Which biologic is administered as an intravenous infusion?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

2. Which biologic is dosed based on body weight?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

3. Which biologic has been shown to worsen existing Crohn disease?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

4. Which biologic is a fusion protein?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab

5. Which biologic has been shown to cause reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome?

a. adalimumab

b. etanercept

c. infliximab

d. secukinumab

e. ustekinumab