IM Board Review

A 40-year-old premenopausal woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast. She first noted it 2 months ago on self-examination, and it has steadily grown in size regardless of the phase of her menstrual cycle.

The patient has never undergone mammography. Her menarche was at age 12. At age 35, she had one child (whom she breastfed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no other medical problems. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer.

On examination, her breasts are slightly asymmetric, without skin discoloration, tenderness, swelling, nipple retraction, or discharge. A 1.5- to 2-cm, rubbery, mobile lump can be felt in the left breast at about the 2 o’clock position. No axillary lymph nodes can be palpated. The rest of her examination is normal.

BREAST CANCER MUST BE RULED OUT

Benign breast disease is found in approximately 90% of women 20 to 50 years of age who come to a physician with a breast problem.¹

Nevertheless, breast cancer is of major concern. It is the most common type of cancer in women in the United States, responsible for an estimated 194,440 new cases and 40,610 deaths in 2009. It is also the leading cause of cancer-related death in women age 45 to 55 years in this country.^2,3

Breast cancer is most common in postmenopausal women, its incidence rising sharply after the age of 45 and leveling off at age 75. The median age at diagnosis is 61 years. Still, 1.9% of breast cancers in women are diagnosed at age 20 to 34, 10.6% at age 35 to 44, and 22.4% at age 45 to 54.⁴

Thus, it is paramount to perform a thorough assessment and workup of women who have breast lumps, regardless of their age. Doing so allows breast cancer to be detected at an early stage. The 5-year survival rate is 98.0% for women with localized disease, 83.6% with regional disease, and 23.4% with distant disease.⁴

WHAT IS THE APPROPRIATE WORKUP?

1. Which of the following are appropriate in the workup of this patient?

• Mammography
• Ultrasonography
• Percutaneous needle biopsy of the lesion
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain
• Computed tomography (CT) of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• Positron emission tomography (PET)

She should undergo mammography, ultrasonography, and percutaneous needle biopsy.

Physical findings that suggest breast cancer include a hard, isolated, sometimes nonmobile lump, serosanguinous nipple discharge, and unilateral nipple retraction. Peau d’orange skin discoloration can occur. A scaly, vesicular, or ulcerated rash with or without pruritus, burning, irritation, or pain of the nipple or skin (Paget disease of the breast) is found in 1% to 3% of breast cancers and may be initially dismissed as mastitis.^5,6 Palpable enlarged axillary lymph nodes can suggest invasive breast cancer.

Mammography is recommended in all cases of suspicious breast lumps. In a patient with a palpable lump, diagnostic mammography has a positive predictive value of 21.8%, a specificity of 85.8%, and a sensitivity of 87.7%, which are higher values than in a patient without signs or symptoms.⁷

The BIRADS score. Mammographic findings are summarized using a scoring system devised by the American College of Radiology called BIRADS (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System). This system is based on mass irregularity, density, spiculation, and presence or absence of microcalcifications. It standardizes the results of mammography, gives an estimate of the risk of breast cancer, and recommends the frequency of follow-up examinations.⁸ Scores range from 0 to 6:

• 0—Incomplete assessment warranting additional evaluation
• 1—Completely negative mammogram
• 2—Benign lesion
• 3—Requires follow-up mammogram at 6 months
• 4—Risk of cancer is 2% to 95%; core biopsy needed
• 5—Risk of cancer is more than 95%; core biopsy needed
• 6—Cases that have already been proven to be malignant.

Ultrasonography is also done if a suspicious lesion is found on mammography or physical examination. It helps differentiate between solid and cystic masses. If a mass is identified as a cyst, ultrasonography can further characterize it as simple, complicated-simple, or complex. Simple cysts and complicated-simple cysts are unlikely to be malignant.^9,10 Complex cysts or cysts associated with solid tissue are evaluated by biopsy.

Percutaneous needle biopsy should be done for a definitive diagnosis of most suspicious breast masses.

MRI can sometimes provide more accurate information about the possibility of multifocal breast cancer by revealing additional lesions missed on mammography or ultrasonography. It is also useful in determining more accurately the size of the breast tumor and looking for any possible contralateral lesions. In addition, it can sometimes detect enlarged axillary lymph nodes. However, it has poor specificity for breast cancer and may lead to additional and sometimes unnecessary diagnostic tests, which can delay treatment.

MRI’s role is therefore not clearly established, but it is commonly used in clinical practice. It is argued that workup of MRI findings may help in planning more accurate surgical procedures and may prevent reoperations. Based on retrospective analyses, results of breast MRI may lead to altered surgical treatment in approximately 13% of patients.¹¹

Interestingly, a recent randomized trial showed no difference in reoperation rates between patients who underwent MRI before surgery vs those who did not. However, diagnostic workup of new MRI findings was not mandated by the study protocol, making the results of this trial difficult to interpret.¹²

 

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

2. Which of the following is in the differential diagnosis of a woman presenting with a breast abnormality?

• Fibrocystic changes
• Breast cyst
• Ductal ectasia
• Simple fibroadenoma
• Intraductal papilloma
• Ductal carcinoma in situ
• Mastitis
• Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
• Phyllodes tumor

All of these choices are part of the differential diagnosis.

Benign breast lesions

Benign breast lesions are divided into those that are proliferative and those that are nonproliferative. Some (but not all) proliferative lesions pose a higher risk of progressing to malignancy than nonproliferative lesions do.¹³ Benign breast lesions that do not increase the risk of breast cancer are listed in Table 1.

Simple fibroadenoma, one of the most common proliferative lesions, is not associated with a higher risk of developing breast cancer.

Fibrocystic changes are the most common nonproliferative lesions. Occasionally breast pain, nipple discharge, or significant lumpiness that varies during the course of the menstrual cycle can occur. The nipple discharge in women with fibrocystic changes is physiologic and pale green to brown in color. It can also be yellow, whitish, clear, or bloody. Bloody nipple discharge is considered pathologic and suggests a process other than fibrocystic changes, necessitating further workup. However, bloody discharge is not always a sign of malignancy, as it can have a benign cause as well.

Ductal ectasia, another nonproliferative lesion, is a result of dilation of subareolar ducts that contain fluid with a crystalline material. It can penetrate the duct, forming a nodule, which causes pain and occasionally fever.

Precancerous and cancerous lesions

Lesions that can increase the risk of breast cancer are listed in Table 2. The degree of risk depends on the complexity and amount of atypia found on the biopsy specimen. The relative risk of developing breast cancer in patients with simple proliferative lesions without atypia is 1.6 to 1.9, compared with 3.7 to 5.3 for complex lesions with high degrees of atypia.¹⁴

Ductal carcinoma in situ is a true neoplasm that has not yet developed the ability to invade through the basement membrane of the ducts. The likelihood of progression to invasive breast cancer depends on the histologic grade, the tumor size, and the patient’s age.

Lobular carcinoma in situ arises from lobules and terminal ducts of breast tissue. Much controversy surrounds this type of tumor, which was thought to be a marker of increased risk of developing ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer and not to be a malignant lesion itself.¹⁵ However, there is emerging evidence to suggest that a pleomorphic variant of lobular carcinoma in situ is associated with development of breast cancer in the same site as the lesion, whereas a nonpleomorphic form is a marker of increased risk of ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer.¹⁶

Invasive ductal and lobular carcinomas are the true invasive breast cancers, with a potential to metastasize.

Phyllodes tumors are uncommon fibroepithelial lesions that account for less than 1% of all breast neoplasms. The median age at presentation is 45 years.¹⁷ Despite the historical name “cystosarcoma phyllodes,” these lesions are not true sarcomas and have stromal and epithelial components.

These tumors display very heterogeneous behavior and, based on predefined histologic criteria, are often classified as benign, borderline, or malignant. Benign phyllodes tumors are similar to fibroadenomas in both histology and prognosis, making their diagnosis challenging. The most aggressive phyllodes tumors lose their epithelial component and have high metastatic potential. These tumors often have a biphasic growth pattern, and women may present with a smooth, round, well-defined breast lump that was stable for many years but then started to grow rapidly.¹⁷

Surgical resection with wide margins is the primary management of these tumors.¹⁸

Mastitis, ie, inflammation of the breast tissue, often presents with symptoms of breast erythema, swelling, tenderness, and nipple discharge. It may be secondary to infection (most often in lactating women) or other causes such as radiation or underlying malignancy. A complication of infectious mastitis is formation of a breast abscess. Underlying malignancy, especially inflammatory breast cancer, is a common cause of noninfectious mastitis and is very important to recognize.¹⁹

 

RISK FACTORS FOR BREAST CANCER

3. Which of the following are risk factors for breast cancer?

• Menarche before age 12
• Female sex
• Personal history of breast cancer
• Obesity
• Never having had children, or having given birth for the first time at an older age
• Older age
• History of hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone
• Family history of breast cancer

All of these choices are risk factors for breast cancer.

Family history

The overall relative risk of developing breast cancer in a woman with a first-degree relative with the disease is 1.7. However, the relative risk is about 3 if the first-degree relative developed breast cancer before menopause, and 9 if the first-degree relative developed bilateral breast cancer before menopause.⁵

Familial syndromes are a major factor in 5% to 7% of cases of breast cancer. Most frequently, they involve mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which encode DNA excision repair proteins. Such mutations are present in about 2.2% of the Ashkenazi Jewish population, and carriers have a lifetime risk of developing breast cancer of 56% to 85%.^20,21 Other common familial syndromes associated with breast cancer include the Cowden and Li-Fraumeni syndromes (Table 3).^22–25

Estrogen exposure

The duration and amount of estrogen exposure are also risk factors. For example, menarche before age 12 and menopause after age 55 are associated with a higher risk. Women who go through menopause after age 55 have a twofold higher risk of breast cancer compared with women who go through menopause at an early age. Pregnancy before age 30 lowers the risk of breast cancer; late first full-term pregnancy or nulliparity increases it. Lactation, on the other hand, has a protective effect.⁵

Oral contraceptives have traditionally been thought to increase the risk of breast cancer. In the 1990s, a meta-analysis involving 153,506 women found that those who had used oral contraceptives had a 24% higher risk of developing breast cancer.²⁶ However, this association has come into question since newer oral contraceptive pills containing different progestins and lower amounts of estrogen have become available. In fact, recent studies showed no link between oral contraceptive use and breast cancer.^27,28 Nevertheless, women at higher risk of developing breast cancer are advised not to use oral contraceptives.

Hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone was found to increase the risk of breast cancer by 26% in the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study, which involved 16,608 healthy women followed for a median of 5.6 years.²⁹

In a study reported separately, the WHI investigators randomized 10,739 women who had undergone hysterectomy to receive either hormone replacement therapy with unopposed estrogen (which is feasible only in women without a uterus) or placebo. They found no increase in the risk of invasive breast cancer in women on hormone replacement therapy with estrogen alone. In fact, the study showed a trend towards a modest reduction of this risk (odds ratio 0.77; 95% confidence interval 0.59–1.01).³⁰

After the results of the WHI were published, the use of hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women declined significantly. And in 2003—1 year later—the incidence of breast cancer had dropped by 6.7%.³¹

Most experts now recommend that estrogen-progestin combinations be used only selectively to treat the symptoms of menopause, and only for the short term.

Other risk factors

Other factors found to modestly increase the risk of breast cancer include:

• Alcohol use
• Obesity
• Radiation exposure. Patients are at higher risk of breast cancer 15 to 20 years after receiving upper-mantle radiotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma.⁵

Case continues: Bad news on mammography, ultrasonography, biopsy

The patient undergoes mammography, which shows a 2.5-cm spiculated lesion with areas of calcifications (BIRADS score of 5). Subsequently, ultrasonography confirms that the suspicious mass is not a cyst. Ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy reveals that the lesion is a high-grade invasive ductal carcinoma. The tumor is positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors and negative for HER2/neu overexpression.

STAGING EVALUATION

4. Given these findings, what is the next step to take?

• CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• MRI of the brain
• PET
• Referral to a surgeon for a possible mastectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection
• Referral to a surgeon for a possible lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection

At this point, the patient should be referred to a surgeon for possible mastectomy or lumpectomy.

Women who appear clinically to have early breast cancer, such as in this case, should have a complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and chest x-ray as their initial staging evaluation. No further studies are recommended unless the findings on history, physical examination, or the above testing suggest possible metastases.

 

Mastectomy vs lumpectomy

Early-stage breast cancer is managed with definitive surgery. The two options are mastectomy and breast conservation therapy, the latter involving lumpectomy followed by breast radiation therapy.

Multiple randomized studies comparing mastectomy and lumpectomy showed no difference in survival rates, but patients in the lumpectomy groups had higher rates of local recurrence.³² Breast radiation therapy after lumpectomy lowered the rates of local recurrence and breast cancer death.³³ Therefore, most patients can opt to undergo either lumpectomy with radiation or mastectomy, depending on personal preference.

However, mastectomy rather than breast conservation therapy is still recommended in cases of prior radiation therapy, inability to achieve negative surgical margins (as in cases of large tumors), multicentric disease (cancer in separate breast quadrants), or multiple areas of calcifications. Mastectomy is also preferred in most pregnant women unless the diagnosis of breast cancer is made in the third trimester and radiation therapy can be given after delivery. Patients who have large lesions in a small breast may also choose mastectomy with breast reconstruction rather than breast conservation therapy. Patients with a history of scleroderma are encouraged to undergo mastectomy because of increased toxicity from radiation treatment.

Sentinel vs axillary lymph node dissection

Knowledge of axillary lymph node involvement is important because it determines the stage in the tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) system, and it influences the choice of further therapy. Therefore, all patients with nonmetastatic invasive breast cancer must have their axillary lymph nodes sampled.

Conventionally, this involves axillary lymph node dissection. Unfortunately, upper extremity lymphedema develops in 6% to 30% of patients within the first 3 years, and in 49% of patients after 20 years following axillary lymph node dissection.³⁴

Sentinel lymph node dissection was developed to minimize this complication. This procedure involves the injection of a blue dye, isosulfan blue (Lymphazurin), around the edge of the tumor or in the dermis overlying the tumor. The most proximal axillary lymph nodes that stain blue are dissected. Alternatively, a radioactive colloid (most commonly technetium sulfur colloid agents) may be injected, allowing sentinel lymph nodes to be identified by lymphoscintigraphy. If no metastases are found in the sentinel lymph nodes, axillary lymph node dissection is not performed.

A prospective study in 536 women found that at 5 years of follow-up, lymphedema developed in only 5% of patients after sentinel lymph node dissection compared with 16% of those who underwent axillary lymph node dissection (P < .001), with comparable outcomes in terms of disease recurrence.³⁵

Case continues: Patient undergoes surgery

The patient elects to undergo lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection. Pathologic review of the resection specimen reveals a 2.5-cm poorly differentiated invasive ductal carcinoma. Sentinel lymph node dissection shows metastases, and therefore axillary lymph node dissection is performed. One of eight lymph nodes removed is positive for metastases. All surgical margins are negative.

POSTOPERATIVE CARE

5. What would be the next step for our patient?

• Radiation followed by observation
• Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for 5 years
• Observation only
• Chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy and 5 years of tamoxifen

She should receive chemotherapy, followed by radiation therapy and then tamoxifen for 5 years.

Chemotherapy. Almost all patients who have lymph-node-positive disease are advised to undergo chemotherapy.

The Early Breast Cancer Trialists’ Collaborative Group (EBCTCG) performed a metaanalysis of 194 randomized trials that compared adjuvant chemotherapy and no treatment in early-stage breast cancer. Chemotherapy led to a 10% absolute improvement in survival at 15 years for women younger than 50 years and 3% in women age 51 to 69.³⁶

Indications for chemotherapy include axillary lymph node involvement, locally advanced disease, and other risk factors for recurrence such as young age at diagnosis, strong positive family history of breast cancer, prior history of breast cancer, or lymph-node-negative, estrogen-receptor-negative tumors that are larger than 1 cm in diameter.

The Oncotype DX assay is a new tool to help oncologists decide whether to use chemotherapy in cases of estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer, in which the benefit of chemotherapy is uncertain. It is a polymerase chain reaction assay that measures the expression of 16 cancer-specific genes and five reference genes within the breast tumor. Based on the pattern of expression of these genes, breast cancer can be characterized as low-risk, intermediate-risk, or high-risk. Patients in the high-risk group have a high chance of cancer recurrence and benefit from chemotherapy. Patients in the low-risk group are unlikely to have a recurrence or to benefit from chemotherapy.³⁷ It is far less clear if patients in the intermediate-risk group benefit from chemotherapy, but this assay might eventually prove useful in deciding for or against chemotherapy in this group of patients as well.³⁸ The Oncotype DX assay is presently being studied in a clinical trial.

Radiation therapy after mastectomy is recommended in patients who have breast tumors larger than 5 cm or metastases to more than three axillary lymph nodes.³⁹

Antiestrogen therapy. After chemotherapy, patients with estrogen-receptor-positive cancers also receive 5 years of antiestrogen therapy. Available antiestrogen agents for such patients include tamoxifen, which is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, and drugs called aromatase inhibitors that block conversion of androgens to estrogens in peripheral tissues. Anastrozole (Arimidex), letrozole (Femara), and exemestane (Aromasin) are examples of available aromatase inhibitors. Premenopausal women are treated with tamoxifen, and postmenopausal women are offered aromatase inhibitors.

The EBCTCG meta-analysis found a 12% absolute reduction in mortality rates and a 9% absolute reduction in relapse rates at 15 years of follow-up in patients who took tamoxifen for 5 years.³⁶

Table 4 lists the most common adverse effects of these agents. Aromatase inhibitors are associated with a higher risk of osteoporosis and arthralgia, while tamoxifen increases the risks of thromboembolism, endometrial cancer, and vaginal discharge. Both agents may produce menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and mood swings.

 

 

Case continues: Seven years later, metastases in the spine

The patient achieves a complete remission. She is seen for a routine visit 7 years after diagnosis. She now reports mid-back pain that has worsened over the last 2 months. A bone scan reveals diffuse metastatic disease in the spine and in both humeral bones. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is negative for visceral metastases. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy study show marrow infiltration by adenocarcinoma that stains positive for estrogen receptors and negative for HER2. The patient otherwise feels well and has no other symptoms.

WHAT TREATMENT FOR METASTATIC BREAST CANCER?

6. What should you now do for our patient?

• Discuss end-of-life care and refer her to a hospice program
• Educate the patient that no options for treatment exist and recommend enrolling in a phase I clinical trial
• Refer her to an oncologist for consideration of chemotherapy
• Refer her to an oncologist for consideration of endocrine treatment

She should be referred to an oncologist for consideration of endocrine treatment.

The most common sites of breast cancer metastases are the bones, followed by the liver and lungs. Metastatic breast cancer almost always is incurable. However, treatment can palliate symptoms.

Although a randomized trial of treatment vs best supportive care has never been done, many believe that treatment may improve survival. ⁴⁰ The median survival of patients treated with standard therapy is about 3 years if the breast cancer is estrogen-receptor-positive and 2 years if it is estrogen-receptor-negative, but survival rates vary widely from patient to patient.^41,42

Standard therapy or enrollment in a clinical phase II or III trial is indicated for this patient before considering enrollment in a phase I clinical trial or supportive care alone.

Endocrine therapy is the first-line therapy in women with estrogen-receptor-positive metastatic breast cancer. Postmenopausal women usually receive an aromatase inhibitor first.^43,44 Response to endocrine therapy usually takes weeks to months but may last for several years.

Premenopausal women with estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer also receive ovarian ablation therapy (oophorectomy or chemical ovarian ablation) with gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists.

In addition, most patients with bone involvement are treated with high doses of intravenous bisphosphonates, which can reduce skeletal complications.⁴⁵

Chemotherapy is reserved for patients with estrogen-receptor-negative breast cancer and those with cancer that progresses despite treatment with multiple antiestrogen agents. The time to response when chemotherapy is used is quicker, but the duration of response is usually shorter, lasting on average less than 1 year.³⁷

Trastuzumab (Herceptin), a monoclonal humanized murine antibody to the extracellular domain of the HER2 protein, is indicated in patients with HER2-overexpressing tumors.^46,47

STABLE 2 YEARS LATER

The patient was started on letrozole and a bisphosphonate, zolendronic acid (Zometa). Ovarian ablation was initiated with goserelin (Zoladex) given monthly. A bone scan performed 2 months after starting treatment showed improvement in bony metastases. She also noted significant improvement in pain. Her disease remains stable 2 years after starting endocrine therapy.

A 40-year-old premenopausal woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast. She first noted it 2 months ago on self-examination, and it has steadily grown in size regardless of the phase of her menstrual cycle.

The patient has never undergone mammography. Her menarche was at age 12. At age 35, she had one child (whom she breastfed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no other medical problems. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer.

On examination, her breasts are slightly asymmetric, without skin discoloration, tenderness, swelling, nipple retraction, or discharge. A 1.5- to 2-cm, rubbery, mobile lump can be felt in the left breast at about the 2 o’clock position. No axillary lymph nodes can be palpated. The rest of her examination is normal.

BREAST CANCER MUST BE RULED OUT

Benign breast disease is found in approximately 90% of women 20 to 50 years of age who come to a physician with a breast problem.¹

Nevertheless, breast cancer is of major concern. It is the most common type of cancer in women in the United States, responsible for an estimated 194,440 new cases and 40,610 deaths in 2009. It is also the leading cause of cancer-related death in women age 45 to 55 years in this country.^2,3

Breast cancer is most common in postmenopausal women, its incidence rising sharply after the age of 45 and leveling off at age 75. The median age at diagnosis is 61 years. Still, 1.9% of breast cancers in women are diagnosed at age 20 to 34, 10.6% at age 35 to 44, and 22.4% at age 45 to 54.⁴

Thus, it is paramount to perform a thorough assessment and workup of women who have breast lumps, regardless of their age. Doing so allows breast cancer to be detected at an early stage. The 5-year survival rate is 98.0% for women with localized disease, 83.6% with regional disease, and 23.4% with distant disease.⁴

WHAT IS THE APPROPRIATE WORKUP?

1. Which of the following are appropriate in the workup of this patient?

• Mammography
• Ultrasonography
• Percutaneous needle biopsy of the lesion
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain
• Computed tomography (CT) of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• Positron emission tomography (PET)

She should undergo mammography, ultrasonography, and percutaneous needle biopsy.

Physical findings that suggest breast cancer include a hard, isolated, sometimes nonmobile lump, serosanguinous nipple discharge, and unilateral nipple retraction. Peau d’orange skin discoloration can occur. A scaly, vesicular, or ulcerated rash with or without pruritus, burning, irritation, or pain of the nipple or skin (Paget disease of the breast) is found in 1% to 3% of breast cancers and may be initially dismissed as mastitis.^5,6 Palpable enlarged axillary lymph nodes can suggest invasive breast cancer.

Mammography is recommended in all cases of suspicious breast lumps. In a patient with a palpable lump, diagnostic mammography has a positive predictive value of 21.8%, a specificity of 85.8%, and a sensitivity of 87.7%, which are higher values than in a patient without signs or symptoms.⁷

The BIRADS score. Mammographic findings are summarized using a scoring system devised by the American College of Radiology called BIRADS (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System). This system is based on mass irregularity, density, spiculation, and presence or absence of microcalcifications. It standardizes the results of mammography, gives an estimate of the risk of breast cancer, and recommends the frequency of follow-up examinations.⁸ Scores range from 0 to 6:

• 0—Incomplete assessment warranting additional evaluation
• 1—Completely negative mammogram
• 2—Benign lesion
• 3—Requires follow-up mammogram at 6 months
• 4—Risk of cancer is 2% to 95%; core biopsy needed
• 5—Risk of cancer is more than 95%; core biopsy needed
• 6—Cases that have already been proven to be malignant.

Ultrasonography is also done if a suspicious lesion is found on mammography or physical examination. It helps differentiate between solid and cystic masses. If a mass is identified as a cyst, ultrasonography can further characterize it as simple, complicated-simple, or complex. Simple cysts and complicated-simple cysts are unlikely to be malignant.^9,10 Complex cysts or cysts associated with solid tissue are evaluated by biopsy.

Percutaneous needle biopsy should be done for a definitive diagnosis of most suspicious breast masses.

MRI can sometimes provide more accurate information about the possibility of multifocal breast cancer by revealing additional lesions missed on mammography or ultrasonography. It is also useful in determining more accurately the size of the breast tumor and looking for any possible contralateral lesions. In addition, it can sometimes detect enlarged axillary lymph nodes. However, it has poor specificity for breast cancer and may lead to additional and sometimes unnecessary diagnostic tests, which can delay treatment.

MRI’s role is therefore not clearly established, but it is commonly used in clinical practice. It is argued that workup of MRI findings may help in planning more accurate surgical procedures and may prevent reoperations. Based on retrospective analyses, results of breast MRI may lead to altered surgical treatment in approximately 13% of patients.¹¹

Interestingly, a recent randomized trial showed no difference in reoperation rates between patients who underwent MRI before surgery vs those who did not. However, diagnostic workup of new MRI findings was not mandated by the study protocol, making the results of this trial difficult to interpret.¹²

 

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

2. Which of the following is in the differential diagnosis of a woman presenting with a breast abnormality?

• Fibrocystic changes
• Breast cyst
• Ductal ectasia
• Simple fibroadenoma
• Intraductal papilloma
• Ductal carcinoma in situ
• Mastitis
• Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
• Phyllodes tumor

All of these choices are part of the differential diagnosis.

Benign breast lesions

Benign breast lesions are divided into those that are proliferative and those that are nonproliferative. Some (but not all) proliferative lesions pose a higher risk of progressing to malignancy than nonproliferative lesions do.¹³ Benign breast lesions that do not increase the risk of breast cancer are listed in Table 1.

Simple fibroadenoma, one of the most common proliferative lesions, is not associated with a higher risk of developing breast cancer.

Fibrocystic changes are the most common nonproliferative lesions. Occasionally breast pain, nipple discharge, or significant lumpiness that varies during the course of the menstrual cycle can occur. The nipple discharge in women with fibrocystic changes is physiologic and pale green to brown in color. It can also be yellow, whitish, clear, or bloody. Bloody nipple discharge is considered pathologic and suggests a process other than fibrocystic changes, necessitating further workup. However, bloody discharge is not always a sign of malignancy, as it can have a benign cause as well.

Ductal ectasia, another nonproliferative lesion, is a result of dilation of subareolar ducts that contain fluid with a crystalline material. It can penetrate the duct, forming a nodule, which causes pain and occasionally fever.

Precancerous and cancerous lesions

Lesions that can increase the risk of breast cancer are listed in Table 2. The degree of risk depends on the complexity and amount of atypia found on the biopsy specimen. The relative risk of developing breast cancer in patients with simple proliferative lesions without atypia is 1.6 to 1.9, compared with 3.7 to 5.3 for complex lesions with high degrees of atypia.¹⁴

Ductal carcinoma in situ is a true neoplasm that has not yet developed the ability to invade through the basement membrane of the ducts. The likelihood of progression to invasive breast cancer depends on the histologic grade, the tumor size, and the patient’s age.

Lobular carcinoma in situ arises from lobules and terminal ducts of breast tissue. Much controversy surrounds this type of tumor, which was thought to be a marker of increased risk of developing ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer and not to be a malignant lesion itself.¹⁵ However, there is emerging evidence to suggest that a pleomorphic variant of lobular carcinoma in situ is associated with development of breast cancer in the same site as the lesion, whereas a nonpleomorphic form is a marker of increased risk of ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer.¹⁶

Invasive ductal and lobular carcinomas are the true invasive breast cancers, with a potential to metastasize.

Phyllodes tumors are uncommon fibroepithelial lesions that account for less than 1% of all breast neoplasms. The median age at presentation is 45 years.¹⁷ Despite the historical name “cystosarcoma phyllodes,” these lesions are not true sarcomas and have stromal and epithelial components.

These tumors display very heterogeneous behavior and, based on predefined histologic criteria, are often classified as benign, borderline, or malignant. Benign phyllodes tumors are similar to fibroadenomas in both histology and prognosis, making their diagnosis challenging. The most aggressive phyllodes tumors lose their epithelial component and have high metastatic potential. These tumors often have a biphasic growth pattern, and women may present with a smooth, round, well-defined breast lump that was stable for many years but then started to grow rapidly.¹⁷

Surgical resection with wide margins is the primary management of these tumors.¹⁸

Mastitis, ie, inflammation of the breast tissue, often presents with symptoms of breast erythema, swelling, tenderness, and nipple discharge. It may be secondary to infection (most often in lactating women) or other causes such as radiation or underlying malignancy. A complication of infectious mastitis is formation of a breast abscess. Underlying malignancy, especially inflammatory breast cancer, is a common cause of noninfectious mastitis and is very important to recognize.¹⁹

 

RISK FACTORS FOR BREAST CANCER

3. Which of the following are risk factors for breast cancer?

• Menarche before age 12
• Female sex
• Personal history of breast cancer
• Obesity
• Never having had children, or having given birth for the first time at an older age
• Older age
• History of hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone
• Family history of breast cancer

All of these choices are risk factors for breast cancer.

Family history

The overall relative risk of developing breast cancer in a woman with a first-degree relative with the disease is 1.7. However, the relative risk is about 3 if the first-degree relative developed breast cancer before menopause, and 9 if the first-degree relative developed bilateral breast cancer before menopause.⁵

Familial syndromes are a major factor in 5% to 7% of cases of breast cancer. Most frequently, they involve mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which encode DNA excision repair proteins. Such mutations are present in about 2.2% of the Ashkenazi Jewish population, and carriers have a lifetime risk of developing breast cancer of 56% to 85%.^20,21 Other common familial syndromes associated with breast cancer include the Cowden and Li-Fraumeni syndromes (Table 3).^22–25

Estrogen exposure

The duration and amount of estrogen exposure are also risk factors. For example, menarche before age 12 and menopause after age 55 are associated with a higher risk. Women who go through menopause after age 55 have a twofold higher risk of breast cancer compared with women who go through menopause at an early age. Pregnancy before age 30 lowers the risk of breast cancer; late first full-term pregnancy or nulliparity increases it. Lactation, on the other hand, has a protective effect.⁵

Oral contraceptives have traditionally been thought to increase the risk of breast cancer. In the 1990s, a meta-analysis involving 153,506 women found that those who had used oral contraceptives had a 24% higher risk of developing breast cancer.²⁶ However, this association has come into question since newer oral contraceptive pills containing different progestins and lower amounts of estrogen have become available. In fact, recent studies showed no link between oral contraceptive use and breast cancer.^27,28 Nevertheless, women at higher risk of developing breast cancer are advised not to use oral contraceptives.

Hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone was found to increase the risk of breast cancer by 26% in the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study, which involved 16,608 healthy women followed for a median of 5.6 years.²⁹

In a study reported separately, the WHI investigators randomized 10,739 women who had undergone hysterectomy to receive either hormone replacement therapy with unopposed estrogen (which is feasible only in women without a uterus) or placebo. They found no increase in the risk of invasive breast cancer in women on hormone replacement therapy with estrogen alone. In fact, the study showed a trend towards a modest reduction of this risk (odds ratio 0.77; 95% confidence interval 0.59–1.01).³⁰

After the results of the WHI were published, the use of hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women declined significantly. And in 2003—1 year later—the incidence of breast cancer had dropped by 6.7%.³¹

Most experts now recommend that estrogen-progestin combinations be used only selectively to treat the symptoms of menopause, and only for the short term.

Other risk factors

Other factors found to modestly increase the risk of breast cancer include:

• Alcohol use
• Obesity
• Radiation exposure. Patients are at higher risk of breast cancer 15 to 20 years after receiving upper-mantle radiotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma.⁵

Case continues: Bad news on mammography, ultrasonography, biopsy

The patient undergoes mammography, which shows a 2.5-cm spiculated lesion with areas of calcifications (BIRADS score of 5). Subsequently, ultrasonography confirms that the suspicious mass is not a cyst. Ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy reveals that the lesion is a high-grade invasive ductal carcinoma. The tumor is positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors and negative for HER2/neu overexpression.

STAGING EVALUATION

4. Given these findings, what is the next step to take?

• CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• MRI of the brain
• PET
• Referral to a surgeon for a possible mastectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection
• Referral to a surgeon for a possible lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection

At this point, the patient should be referred to a surgeon for possible mastectomy or lumpectomy.

Women who appear clinically to have early breast cancer, such as in this case, should have a complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and chest x-ray as their initial staging evaluation. No further studies are recommended unless the findings on history, physical examination, or the above testing suggest possible metastases.

 

Mastectomy vs lumpectomy

Early-stage breast cancer is managed with definitive surgery. The two options are mastectomy and breast conservation therapy, the latter involving lumpectomy followed by breast radiation therapy.

Multiple randomized studies comparing mastectomy and lumpectomy showed no difference in survival rates, but patients in the lumpectomy groups had higher rates of local recurrence.³² Breast radiation therapy after lumpectomy lowered the rates of local recurrence and breast cancer death.³³ Therefore, most patients can opt to undergo either lumpectomy with radiation or mastectomy, depending on personal preference.

However, mastectomy rather than breast conservation therapy is still recommended in cases of prior radiation therapy, inability to achieve negative surgical margins (as in cases of large tumors), multicentric disease (cancer in separate breast quadrants), or multiple areas of calcifications. Mastectomy is also preferred in most pregnant women unless the diagnosis of breast cancer is made in the third trimester and radiation therapy can be given after delivery. Patients who have large lesions in a small breast may also choose mastectomy with breast reconstruction rather than breast conservation therapy. Patients with a history of scleroderma are encouraged to undergo mastectomy because of increased toxicity from radiation treatment.

Sentinel vs axillary lymph node dissection

Knowledge of axillary lymph node involvement is important because it determines the stage in the tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) system, and it influences the choice of further therapy. Therefore, all patients with nonmetastatic invasive breast cancer must have their axillary lymph nodes sampled.

Conventionally, this involves axillary lymph node dissection. Unfortunately, upper extremity lymphedema develops in 6% to 30% of patients within the first 3 years, and in 49% of patients after 20 years following axillary lymph node dissection.³⁴

Sentinel lymph node dissection was developed to minimize this complication. This procedure involves the injection of a blue dye, isosulfan blue (Lymphazurin), around the edge of the tumor or in the dermis overlying the tumor. The most proximal axillary lymph nodes that stain blue are dissected. Alternatively, a radioactive colloid (most commonly technetium sulfur colloid agents) may be injected, allowing sentinel lymph nodes to be identified by lymphoscintigraphy. If no metastases are found in the sentinel lymph nodes, axillary lymph node dissection is not performed.

A prospective study in 536 women found that at 5 years of follow-up, lymphedema developed in only 5% of patients after sentinel lymph node dissection compared with 16% of those who underwent axillary lymph node dissection (P < .001), with comparable outcomes in terms of disease recurrence.³⁵

Case continues: Patient undergoes surgery

The patient elects to undergo lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection. Pathologic review of the resection specimen reveals a 2.5-cm poorly differentiated invasive ductal carcinoma. Sentinel lymph node dissection shows metastases, and therefore axillary lymph node dissection is performed. One of eight lymph nodes removed is positive for metastases. All surgical margins are negative.

POSTOPERATIVE CARE

5. What would be the next step for our patient?

• Radiation followed by observation
• Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for 5 years
• Observation only
• Chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy and 5 years of tamoxifen

She should receive chemotherapy, followed by radiation therapy and then tamoxifen for 5 years.

Chemotherapy. Almost all patients who have lymph-node-positive disease are advised to undergo chemotherapy.

The Early Breast Cancer Trialists’ Collaborative Group (EBCTCG) performed a metaanalysis of 194 randomized trials that compared adjuvant chemotherapy and no treatment in early-stage breast cancer. Chemotherapy led to a 10% absolute improvement in survival at 15 years for women younger than 50 years and 3% in women age 51 to 69.³⁶

Indications for chemotherapy include axillary lymph node involvement, locally advanced disease, and other risk factors for recurrence such as young age at diagnosis, strong positive family history of breast cancer, prior history of breast cancer, or lymph-node-negative, estrogen-receptor-negative tumors that are larger than 1 cm in diameter.

The Oncotype DX assay is a new tool to help oncologists decide whether to use chemotherapy in cases of estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer, in which the benefit of chemotherapy is uncertain. It is a polymerase chain reaction assay that measures the expression of 16 cancer-specific genes and five reference genes within the breast tumor. Based on the pattern of expression of these genes, breast cancer can be characterized as low-risk, intermediate-risk, or high-risk. Patients in the high-risk group have a high chance of cancer recurrence and benefit from chemotherapy. Patients in the low-risk group are unlikely to have a recurrence or to benefit from chemotherapy.³⁷ It is far less clear if patients in the intermediate-risk group benefit from chemotherapy, but this assay might eventually prove useful in deciding for or against chemotherapy in this group of patients as well.³⁸ The Oncotype DX assay is presently being studied in a clinical trial.

Radiation therapy after mastectomy is recommended in patients who have breast tumors larger than 5 cm or metastases to more than three axillary lymph nodes.³⁹

Antiestrogen therapy. After chemotherapy, patients with estrogen-receptor-positive cancers also receive 5 years of antiestrogen therapy. Available antiestrogen agents for such patients include tamoxifen, which is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, and drugs called aromatase inhibitors that block conversion of androgens to estrogens in peripheral tissues. Anastrozole (Arimidex), letrozole (Femara), and exemestane (Aromasin) are examples of available aromatase inhibitors. Premenopausal women are treated with tamoxifen, and postmenopausal women are offered aromatase inhibitors.

The EBCTCG meta-analysis found a 12% absolute reduction in mortality rates and a 9% absolute reduction in relapse rates at 15 years of follow-up in patients who took tamoxifen for 5 years.³⁶

Table 4 lists the most common adverse effects of these agents. Aromatase inhibitors are associated with a higher risk of osteoporosis and arthralgia, while tamoxifen increases the risks of thromboembolism, endometrial cancer, and vaginal discharge. Both agents may produce menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and mood swings.

 

 

Case continues: Seven years later, metastases in the spine

The patient achieves a complete remission. She is seen for a routine visit 7 years after diagnosis. She now reports mid-back pain that has worsened over the last 2 months. A bone scan reveals diffuse metastatic disease in the spine and in both humeral bones. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is negative for visceral metastases. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy study show marrow infiltration by adenocarcinoma that stains positive for estrogen receptors and negative for HER2. The patient otherwise feels well and has no other symptoms.

WHAT TREATMENT FOR METASTATIC BREAST CANCER?

6. What should you now do for our patient?

• Discuss end-of-life care and refer her to a hospice program
• Educate the patient that no options for treatment exist and recommend enrolling in a phase I clinical trial
• Refer her to an oncologist for consideration of chemotherapy
• Refer her to an oncologist for consideration of endocrine treatment

She should be referred to an oncologist for consideration of endocrine treatment.

The most common sites of breast cancer metastases are the bones, followed by the liver and lungs. Metastatic breast cancer almost always is incurable. However, treatment can palliate symptoms.

Although a randomized trial of treatment vs best supportive care has never been done, many believe that treatment may improve survival. ⁴⁰ The median survival of patients treated with standard therapy is about 3 years if the breast cancer is estrogen-receptor-positive and 2 years if it is estrogen-receptor-negative, but survival rates vary widely from patient to patient.^41,42

Standard therapy or enrollment in a clinical phase II or III trial is indicated for this patient before considering enrollment in a phase I clinical trial or supportive care alone.

Endocrine therapy is the first-line therapy in women with estrogen-receptor-positive metastatic breast cancer. Postmenopausal women usually receive an aromatase inhibitor first.^43,44 Response to endocrine therapy usually takes weeks to months but may last for several years.

Premenopausal women with estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer also receive ovarian ablation therapy (oophorectomy or chemical ovarian ablation) with gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists.

In addition, most patients with bone involvement are treated with high doses of intravenous bisphosphonates, which can reduce skeletal complications.⁴⁵

Chemotherapy is reserved for patients with estrogen-receptor-negative breast cancer and those with cancer that progresses despite treatment with multiple antiestrogen agents. The time to response when chemotherapy is used is quicker, but the duration of response is usually shorter, lasting on average less than 1 year.³⁷

Trastuzumab (Herceptin), a monoclonal humanized murine antibody to the extracellular domain of the HER2 protein, is indicated in patients with HER2-overexpressing tumors.^46,47

STABLE 2 YEARS LATER

The patient was started on letrozole and a bisphosphonate, zolendronic acid (Zometa). Ovarian ablation was initiated with goserelin (Zoladex) given monthly. A bone scan performed 2 months after starting treatment showed improvement in bony metastases. She also noted significant improvement in pain. Her disease remains stable 2 years after starting endocrine therapy.

A 40-year-old premenopausal woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast. She first noted it 2 months ago on self-examination, and it has steadily grown in size regardless of the phase of her menstrual cycle.

The patient has never undergone mammography. Her menarche was at age 12. At age 35, she had one child (whom she breastfed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no other medical problems. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer.

On examination, her breasts are slightly asymmetric, without skin discoloration, tenderness, swelling, nipple retraction, or discharge. A 1.5- to 2-cm, rubbery, mobile lump can be felt in the left breast at about the 2 o’clock position. No axillary lymph nodes can be palpated. The rest of her examination is normal.

BREAST CANCER MUST BE RULED OUT

Benign breast disease is found in approximately 90% of women 20 to 50 years of age who come to a physician with a breast problem.¹

Nevertheless, breast cancer is of major concern. It is the most common type of cancer in women in the United States, responsible for an estimated 194,440 new cases and 40,610 deaths in 2009. It is also the leading cause of cancer-related death in women age 45 to 55 years in this country.^2,3

Breast cancer is most common in postmenopausal women, its incidence rising sharply after the age of 45 and leveling off at age 75. The median age at diagnosis is 61 years. Still, 1.9% of breast cancers in women are diagnosed at age 20 to 34, 10.6% at age 35 to 44, and 22.4% at age 45 to 54.⁴

Thus, it is paramount to perform a thorough assessment and workup of women who have breast lumps, regardless of their age. Doing so allows breast cancer to be detected at an early stage. The 5-year survival rate is 98.0% for women with localized disease, 83.6% with regional disease, and 23.4% with distant disease.⁴

WHAT IS THE APPROPRIATE WORKUP?

1. Which of the following are appropriate in the workup of this patient?

• Mammography
• Ultrasonography
• Percutaneous needle biopsy of the lesion
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain
• Computed tomography (CT) of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• Positron emission tomography (PET)

She should undergo mammography, ultrasonography, and percutaneous needle biopsy.

Physical findings that suggest breast cancer include a hard, isolated, sometimes nonmobile lump, serosanguinous nipple discharge, and unilateral nipple retraction. Peau d’orange skin discoloration can occur. A scaly, vesicular, or ulcerated rash with or without pruritus, burning, irritation, or pain of the nipple or skin (Paget disease of the breast) is found in 1% to 3% of breast cancers and may be initially dismissed as mastitis.^5,6 Palpable enlarged axillary lymph nodes can suggest invasive breast cancer.

Mammography is recommended in all cases of suspicious breast lumps. In a patient with a palpable lump, diagnostic mammography has a positive predictive value of 21.8%, a specificity of 85.8%, and a sensitivity of 87.7%, which are higher values than in a patient without signs or symptoms.⁷

The BIRADS score. Mammographic findings are summarized using a scoring system devised by the American College of Radiology called BIRADS (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System). This system is based on mass irregularity, density, spiculation, and presence or absence of microcalcifications. It standardizes the results of mammography, gives an estimate of the risk of breast cancer, and recommends the frequency of follow-up examinations.⁸ Scores range from 0 to 6:

• 0—Incomplete assessment warranting additional evaluation
• 1—Completely negative mammogram
• 2—Benign lesion
• 3—Requires follow-up mammogram at 6 months
• 4—Risk of cancer is 2% to 95%; core biopsy needed
• 5—Risk of cancer is more than 95%; core biopsy needed
• 6—Cases that have already been proven to be malignant.

Ultrasonography is also done if a suspicious lesion is found on mammography or physical examination. It helps differentiate between solid and cystic masses. If a mass is identified as a cyst, ultrasonography can further characterize it as simple, complicated-simple, or complex. Simple cysts and complicated-simple cysts are unlikely to be malignant.^9,10 Complex cysts or cysts associated with solid tissue are evaluated by biopsy.

Percutaneous needle biopsy should be done for a definitive diagnosis of most suspicious breast masses.

MRI can sometimes provide more accurate information about the possibility of multifocal breast cancer by revealing additional lesions missed on mammography or ultrasonography. It is also useful in determining more accurately the size of the breast tumor and looking for any possible contralateral lesions. In addition, it can sometimes detect enlarged axillary lymph nodes. However, it has poor specificity for breast cancer and may lead to additional and sometimes unnecessary diagnostic tests, which can delay treatment.

MRI’s role is therefore not clearly established, but it is commonly used in clinical practice. It is argued that workup of MRI findings may help in planning more accurate surgical procedures and may prevent reoperations. Based on retrospective analyses, results of breast MRI may lead to altered surgical treatment in approximately 13% of patients.¹¹

Interestingly, a recent randomized trial showed no difference in reoperation rates between patients who underwent MRI before surgery vs those who did not. However, diagnostic workup of new MRI findings was not mandated by the study protocol, making the results of this trial difficult to interpret.¹²

 

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

2. Which of the following is in the differential diagnosis of a woman presenting with a breast abnormality?

• Fibrocystic changes
• Breast cyst
• Ductal ectasia
• Simple fibroadenoma
• Intraductal papilloma
• Ductal carcinoma in situ
• Mastitis
• Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
• Phyllodes tumor

All of these choices are part of the differential diagnosis.

Benign breast lesions

Benign breast lesions are divided into those that are proliferative and those that are nonproliferative. Some (but not all) proliferative lesions pose a higher risk of progressing to malignancy than nonproliferative lesions do.¹³ Benign breast lesions that do not increase the risk of breast cancer are listed in Table 1.

Simple fibroadenoma, one of the most common proliferative lesions, is not associated with a higher risk of developing breast cancer.

Fibrocystic changes are the most common nonproliferative lesions. Occasionally breast pain, nipple discharge, or significant lumpiness that varies during the course of the menstrual cycle can occur. The nipple discharge in women with fibrocystic changes is physiologic and pale green to brown in color. It can also be yellow, whitish, clear, or bloody. Bloody nipple discharge is considered pathologic and suggests a process other than fibrocystic changes, necessitating further workup. However, bloody discharge is not always a sign of malignancy, as it can have a benign cause as well.

Ductal ectasia, another nonproliferative lesion, is a result of dilation of subareolar ducts that contain fluid with a crystalline material. It can penetrate the duct, forming a nodule, which causes pain and occasionally fever.

Precancerous and cancerous lesions

Lesions that can increase the risk of breast cancer are listed in Table 2. The degree of risk depends on the complexity and amount of atypia found on the biopsy specimen. The relative risk of developing breast cancer in patients with simple proliferative lesions without atypia is 1.6 to 1.9, compared with 3.7 to 5.3 for complex lesions with high degrees of atypia.¹⁴

Ductal carcinoma in situ is a true neoplasm that has not yet developed the ability to invade through the basement membrane of the ducts. The likelihood of progression to invasive breast cancer depends on the histologic grade, the tumor size, and the patient’s age.

Lobular carcinoma in situ arises from lobules and terminal ducts of breast tissue. Much controversy surrounds this type of tumor, which was thought to be a marker of increased risk of developing ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer and not to be a malignant lesion itself.¹⁵ However, there is emerging evidence to suggest that a pleomorphic variant of lobular carcinoma in situ is associated with development of breast cancer in the same site as the lesion, whereas a nonpleomorphic form is a marker of increased risk of ipsilateral and contralateral breast cancer.¹⁶

Invasive ductal and lobular carcinomas are the true invasive breast cancers, with a potential to metastasize.

Phyllodes tumors are uncommon fibroepithelial lesions that account for less than 1% of all breast neoplasms. The median age at presentation is 45 years.¹⁷ Despite the historical name “cystosarcoma phyllodes,” these lesions are not true sarcomas and have stromal and epithelial components.

These tumors display very heterogeneous behavior and, based on predefined histologic criteria, are often classified as benign, borderline, or malignant. Benign phyllodes tumors are similar to fibroadenomas in both histology and prognosis, making their diagnosis challenging. The most aggressive phyllodes tumors lose their epithelial component and have high metastatic potential. These tumors often have a biphasic growth pattern, and women may present with a smooth, round, well-defined breast lump that was stable for many years but then started to grow rapidly.¹⁷

Surgical resection with wide margins is the primary management of these tumors.¹⁸

Mastitis, ie, inflammation of the breast tissue, often presents with symptoms of breast erythema, swelling, tenderness, and nipple discharge. It may be secondary to infection (most often in lactating women) or other causes such as radiation or underlying malignancy. A complication of infectious mastitis is formation of a breast abscess. Underlying malignancy, especially inflammatory breast cancer, is a common cause of noninfectious mastitis and is very important to recognize.¹⁹

 

RISK FACTORS FOR BREAST CANCER

3. Which of the following are risk factors for breast cancer?

• Menarche before age 12
• Female sex
• Personal history of breast cancer
• Obesity
• Never having had children, or having given birth for the first time at an older age
• Older age
• History of hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone
• Family history of breast cancer

All of these choices are risk factors for breast cancer.

Family history

The overall relative risk of developing breast cancer in a woman with a first-degree relative with the disease is 1.7. However, the relative risk is about 3 if the first-degree relative developed breast cancer before menopause, and 9 if the first-degree relative developed bilateral breast cancer before menopause.⁵

Familial syndromes are a major factor in 5% to 7% of cases of breast cancer. Most frequently, they involve mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which encode DNA excision repair proteins. Such mutations are present in about 2.2% of the Ashkenazi Jewish population, and carriers have a lifetime risk of developing breast cancer of 56% to 85%.^20,21 Other common familial syndromes associated with breast cancer include the Cowden and Li-Fraumeni syndromes (Table 3).^22–25

Estrogen exposure

The duration and amount of estrogen exposure are also risk factors. For example, menarche before age 12 and menopause after age 55 are associated with a higher risk. Women who go through menopause after age 55 have a twofold higher risk of breast cancer compared with women who go through menopause at an early age. Pregnancy before age 30 lowers the risk of breast cancer; late first full-term pregnancy or nulliparity increases it. Lactation, on the other hand, has a protective effect.⁵

Oral contraceptives have traditionally been thought to increase the risk of breast cancer. In the 1990s, a meta-analysis involving 153,506 women found that those who had used oral contraceptives had a 24% higher risk of developing breast cancer.²⁶ However, this association has come into question since newer oral contraceptive pills containing different progestins and lower amounts of estrogen have become available. In fact, recent studies showed no link between oral contraceptive use and breast cancer.^27,28 Nevertheless, women at higher risk of developing breast cancer are advised not to use oral contraceptives.

Hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone was found to increase the risk of breast cancer by 26% in the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study, which involved 16,608 healthy women followed for a median of 5.6 years.²⁹

In a study reported separately, the WHI investigators randomized 10,739 women who had undergone hysterectomy to receive either hormone replacement therapy with unopposed estrogen (which is feasible only in women without a uterus) or placebo. They found no increase in the risk of invasive breast cancer in women on hormone replacement therapy with estrogen alone. In fact, the study showed a trend towards a modest reduction of this risk (odds ratio 0.77; 95% confidence interval 0.59–1.01).³⁰

After the results of the WHI were published, the use of hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women declined significantly. And in 2003—1 year later—the incidence of breast cancer had dropped by 6.7%.³¹

Most experts now recommend that estrogen-progestin combinations be used only selectively to treat the symptoms of menopause, and only for the short term.

Other risk factors

Other factors found to modestly increase the risk of breast cancer include:

• Alcohol use
• Obesity
• Radiation exposure. Patients are at higher risk of breast cancer 15 to 20 years after receiving upper-mantle radiotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma.⁵

Case continues: Bad news on mammography, ultrasonography, biopsy

The patient undergoes mammography, which shows a 2.5-cm spiculated lesion with areas of calcifications (BIRADS score of 5). Subsequently, ultrasonography confirms that the suspicious mass is not a cyst. Ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy reveals that the lesion is a high-grade invasive ductal carcinoma. The tumor is positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors and negative for HER2/neu overexpression.

STAGING EVALUATION

4. Given these findings, what is the next step to take?

• CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• MRI of the brain
• PET
• Referral to a surgeon for a possible mastectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection
• Referral to a surgeon for a possible lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection

At this point, the patient should be referred to a surgeon for possible mastectomy or lumpectomy.

Women who appear clinically to have early breast cancer, such as in this case, should have a complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, and chest x-ray as their initial staging evaluation. No further studies are recommended unless the findings on history, physical examination, or the above testing suggest possible metastases.

 

Mastectomy vs lumpectomy

Early-stage breast cancer is managed with definitive surgery. The two options are mastectomy and breast conservation therapy, the latter involving lumpectomy followed by breast radiation therapy.

Multiple randomized studies comparing mastectomy and lumpectomy showed no difference in survival rates, but patients in the lumpectomy groups had higher rates of local recurrence.³² Breast radiation therapy after lumpectomy lowered the rates of local recurrence and breast cancer death.³³ Therefore, most patients can opt to undergo either lumpectomy with radiation or mastectomy, depending on personal preference.

However, mastectomy rather than breast conservation therapy is still recommended in cases of prior radiation therapy, inability to achieve negative surgical margins (as in cases of large tumors), multicentric disease (cancer in separate breast quadrants), or multiple areas of calcifications. Mastectomy is also preferred in most pregnant women unless the diagnosis of breast cancer is made in the third trimester and radiation therapy can be given after delivery. Patients who have large lesions in a small breast may also choose mastectomy with breast reconstruction rather than breast conservation therapy. Patients with a history of scleroderma are encouraged to undergo mastectomy because of increased toxicity from radiation treatment.

Sentinel vs axillary lymph node dissection

Knowledge of axillary lymph node involvement is important because it determines the stage in the tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) system, and it influences the choice of further therapy. Therefore, all patients with nonmetastatic invasive breast cancer must have their axillary lymph nodes sampled.

Conventionally, this involves axillary lymph node dissection. Unfortunately, upper extremity lymphedema develops in 6% to 30% of patients within the first 3 years, and in 49% of patients after 20 years following axillary lymph node dissection.³⁴

Sentinel lymph node dissection was developed to minimize this complication. This procedure involves the injection of a blue dye, isosulfan blue (Lymphazurin), around the edge of the tumor or in the dermis overlying the tumor. The most proximal axillary lymph nodes that stain blue are dissected. Alternatively, a radioactive colloid (most commonly technetium sulfur colloid agents) may be injected, allowing sentinel lymph nodes to be identified by lymphoscintigraphy. If no metastases are found in the sentinel lymph nodes, axillary lymph node dissection is not performed.

A prospective study in 536 women found that at 5 years of follow-up, lymphedema developed in only 5% of patients after sentinel lymph node dissection compared with 16% of those who underwent axillary lymph node dissection (P < .001), with comparable outcomes in terms of disease recurrence.³⁵

Case continues: Patient undergoes surgery

The patient elects to undergo lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node dissection. Pathologic review of the resection specimen reveals a 2.5-cm poorly differentiated invasive ductal carcinoma. Sentinel lymph node dissection shows metastases, and therefore axillary lymph node dissection is performed. One of eight lymph nodes removed is positive for metastases. All surgical margins are negative.

POSTOPERATIVE CARE

5. What would be the next step for our patient?

• Radiation followed by observation
• Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for 5 years
• Observation only
• Chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy and 5 years of tamoxifen

She should receive chemotherapy, followed by radiation therapy and then tamoxifen for 5 years.

Chemotherapy. Almost all patients who have lymph-node-positive disease are advised to undergo chemotherapy.

The Early Breast Cancer Trialists’ Collaborative Group (EBCTCG) performed a metaanalysis of 194 randomized trials that compared adjuvant chemotherapy and no treatment in early-stage breast cancer. Chemotherapy led to a 10% absolute improvement in survival at 15 years for women younger than 50 years and 3% in women age 51 to 69.³⁶

Indications for chemotherapy include axillary lymph node involvement, locally advanced disease, and other risk factors for recurrence such as young age at diagnosis, strong positive family history of breast cancer, prior history of breast cancer, or lymph-node-negative, estrogen-receptor-negative tumors that are larger than 1 cm in diameter.

The Oncotype DX assay is a new tool to help oncologists decide whether to use chemotherapy in cases of estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer, in which the benefit of chemotherapy is uncertain. It is a polymerase chain reaction assay that measures the expression of 16 cancer-specific genes and five reference genes within the breast tumor. Based on the pattern of expression of these genes, breast cancer can be characterized as low-risk, intermediate-risk, or high-risk. Patients in the high-risk group have a high chance of cancer recurrence and benefit from chemotherapy. Patients in the low-risk group are unlikely to have a recurrence or to benefit from chemotherapy.³⁷ It is far less clear if patients in the intermediate-risk group benefit from chemotherapy, but this assay might eventually prove useful in deciding for or against chemotherapy in this group of patients as well.³⁸ The Oncotype DX assay is presently being studied in a clinical trial.

Radiation therapy after mastectomy is recommended in patients who have breast tumors larger than 5 cm or metastases to more than three axillary lymph nodes.³⁹

Antiestrogen therapy. After chemotherapy, patients with estrogen-receptor-positive cancers also receive 5 years of antiestrogen therapy. Available antiestrogen agents for such patients include tamoxifen, which is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, and drugs called aromatase inhibitors that block conversion of androgens to estrogens in peripheral tissues. Anastrozole (Arimidex), letrozole (Femara), and exemestane (Aromasin) are examples of available aromatase inhibitors. Premenopausal women are treated with tamoxifen, and postmenopausal women are offered aromatase inhibitors.

The EBCTCG meta-analysis found a 12% absolute reduction in mortality rates and a 9% absolute reduction in relapse rates at 15 years of follow-up in patients who took tamoxifen for 5 years.³⁶

Table 4 lists the most common adverse effects of these agents. Aromatase inhibitors are associated with a higher risk of osteoporosis and arthralgia, while tamoxifen increases the risks of thromboembolism, endometrial cancer, and vaginal discharge. Both agents may produce menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and mood swings.

 

 

Case continues: Seven years later, metastases in the spine

The patient achieves a complete remission. She is seen for a routine visit 7 years after diagnosis. She now reports mid-back pain that has worsened over the last 2 months. A bone scan reveals diffuse metastatic disease in the spine and in both humeral bones. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is negative for visceral metastases. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy study show marrow infiltration by adenocarcinoma that stains positive for estrogen receptors and negative for HER2. The patient otherwise feels well and has no other symptoms.

WHAT TREATMENT FOR METASTATIC BREAST CANCER?

6. What should you now do for our patient?

• Discuss end-of-life care and refer her to a hospice program
• Educate the patient that no options for treatment exist and recommend enrolling in a phase I clinical trial
• Refer her to an oncologist for consideration of chemotherapy
• Refer her to an oncologist for consideration of endocrine treatment

She should be referred to an oncologist for consideration of endocrine treatment.

The most common sites of breast cancer metastases are the bones, followed by the liver and lungs. Metastatic breast cancer almost always is incurable. However, treatment can palliate symptoms.

Although a randomized trial of treatment vs best supportive care has never been done, many believe that treatment may improve survival. ⁴⁰ The median survival of patients treated with standard therapy is about 3 years if the breast cancer is estrogen-receptor-positive and 2 years if it is estrogen-receptor-negative, but survival rates vary widely from patient to patient.^41,42

Standard therapy or enrollment in a clinical phase II or III trial is indicated for this patient before considering enrollment in a phase I clinical trial or supportive care alone.

Endocrine therapy is the first-line therapy in women with estrogen-receptor-positive metastatic breast cancer. Postmenopausal women usually receive an aromatase inhibitor first.^43,44 Response to endocrine therapy usually takes weeks to months but may last for several years.

Premenopausal women with estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer also receive ovarian ablation therapy (oophorectomy or chemical ovarian ablation) with gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists.

In addition, most patients with bone involvement are treated with high doses of intravenous bisphosphonates, which can reduce skeletal complications.⁴⁵

Chemotherapy is reserved for patients with estrogen-receptor-negative breast cancer and those with cancer that progresses despite treatment with multiple antiestrogen agents. The time to response when chemotherapy is used is quicker, but the duration of response is usually shorter, lasting on average less than 1 year.³⁷

Trastuzumab (Herceptin), a monoclonal humanized murine antibody to the extracellular domain of the HER2 protein, is indicated in patients with HER2-overexpressing tumors.^46,47

STABLE 2 YEARS LATER

The patient was started on letrozole and a bisphosphonate, zolendronic acid (Zometa). Ovarian ablation was initiated with goserelin (Zoladex) given monthly. A bone scan performed 2 months after starting treatment showed improvement in bony metastases. She also noted significant improvement in pain. Her disease remains stable 2 years after starting endocrine therapy.

A 61-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because for the last 4 weeks she has had difficulty swallowing solid food and a feeling of food “getting stuck in the chest.” She also reports having nausea, mild epigastric pain, and heartburn. She denies having fevers, chills, night sweats, weight loss, vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia, or melena.

Medical history

For the past 20 years, she has had gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), intermittently treated with a proton pump inhibitor. She also has arthritis, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and asthma, and she has undergone right hip replacement for a hip fracture. She has no known allergies.

She lives in the Midwest region of the United States and is on disability due to her arthritis. She is divorced and has three children.

She quit smoking 3 years ago after smoking half a pack per day for 30 years. She drinks socially; she has never used recreational drugs.

She recalls that an uncle had cancer, but she does not know the specific type.

Physical examination

The patient’s temperature is 96.7°F (35.9°C), heart rate 86 per minute, blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 per minute, and oxygen saturation 100% on room air.

She is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. Her sclera are white, her lymph nodes are not palpable, and her heart and lungs appear normal. Her abdomen is tender in the area of the stomach and in the left upper quadrant, there are no signs of peritonitis, the liver and spleen are not enlarged, and no masses can be palpated. She has no asterixis. Results of her complete neurologic examination are normal. Her extremities are normal with no edema. Her laboratory values are shown in Table 1.

Differential diagnosis

Although the differential diagnosis at this stage is broad, a few conditions that commonly present like this are:

• Esophageal cancer
• Esophageal stricture
• Esophageal webs
• Esophagitis (infectious, inflammatory)
• Peptic ulcer disease.

WHICH TEST SHOULD BE ORDERED?

1. Which test will you order now for this patient?

• Endoscopy (esophagogastroduodenoscopy)
• Serum Helicobacter pylori antibody testing
• Wireless pH monitoring
• Barium swallow

Endoscopy would be the best test to order. Esophageal cancer and esophageal stricture must be ruled out, in view of her long history of GERD, gastritis, and smoking and her alarming symptoms of difficulty swallowing and food sticking. In this situation, endoscopy is the first test recommended. In addition to its diagnostic value, it offers an opportunity to obtain tissue samples and to perform a therapeutic intervention, if necessary.^1,2

H pyloriantibody testing is used in the “test-and-treat approach” for H pylori infection, an established management strategy for patients who have uninvestigated dyspepsia and who are younger than 55 years and have no “alarm features,” ie, red flags for cancer. The alarm features commonly described are anemia, early satiety, unexplained weight loss, bleeding, odynophagia, progressive dysphagia, unexplained vomiting, and a family history or prior history of gastrointestinal malignancy.³

Our patient’s symptoms raise the possibility of cancer, so that H pylori testing would not be the best test to order at this point.

Ambulatory wireless pH monitoring with a wireless pH capsule is useful for confirming GERD in those with persistent symptoms (whether typical or atypical) who do not have evidence of mucosal damage on initial endoscopy, particularly if a trial of acid suppression has failed.^4–6

Barium swallow is an x-ray examination of the esophagus with contrast. It can show both the anatomy and the function of the esophagus, and it would be the initial diagnostic procedure of choice for patients with dysphagia who have no alarm symptoms.⁷ However, our patient does have alarm symptoms.

First highlight point

• Endoscopy is the first test in patients with dysphagia with alarm symptoms.

CASE CONTINUES: ENDOSCOPY

The patient undergoes endoscopy, which shows erosive esophagitis (grade B according to the Los Angeles classification⁸), gastritis, and multiple smooth nodules measuring 3 to 5 mm in the body of the stomach (Figure 1).

Multiple biopsies of the nodules show atypical lymphoid infiltrates with small cleaved lymphocytes that are mostly positive for CD5, CD20, and CD43 and negative for CD10 and CD23 by flow cytometry. In addition, a staining test for H pylori is positive.

Comment. Our patient has had GERD for the past 20 years, intermittently treated with a proton pump inhibitor. Acid suppressive therapy with a proton pump inhibitor is the standard of care of patients with erosive esophagitis. In standard doses, these drugs control symptoms in most cases and heal esophagitis in almost 90% of cases within 4 to 8 weeks.⁹ Proton pump inhibitors are also effective for maintaining healing of esophagitis and controlling symptoms in patients who respond to an acute course of therapy for a period of 6 to 12 months.¹⁰

 

WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?

2. Which is the most likely diagnosis for our patient?

• Fundic gland polyps
• Gastric hyperplastic polyps
• Gastric adenomas
• Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma

Fundic gland polyps are small (0.1–0.8 cm), hyperemic, sessile, flat, nodular lesions that have a smooth surface. They occur exclusively in the gastric corpus and are composed of normal gastric corpus-type epithelium arranged in a disorderly or microcystic configuration. ¹¹ This pattern does not match our patient’s findings.

Gastric hyperplastic polyps are elongated, cystic, and distorted foveolar epithelium with marked regeneration. Other histologic findings are stromal inflammation, edema, and smooth muscle hyperplasia.¹² This does not match our patient’s findings.

Adenomas can be flat or polypoid and range in size from a few millimeters to several centimeters. Endoscopically, adenomatous polyps have a velvety, lobulated appearance. Most are solitary (82% of cases), located in the antrum, and less than 2 cm in diameter.¹³ This does not match our patient’s findings.

MALT lymphoma, the correct answer, is characterized by small cleaved lymphocytes positive for CD4, CD20, and CD43. Although CD5 positivity is not characteristic, rare cases of MALT lymphoma may be CD5-positive and may be more aggressive.¹⁴

Other common features of MALT lymphoma are erosions, small nodules, thickening of gastric folds—generally suggesting a benign condition—or hyperemic or even normal gastric mucosa.¹⁵ Our patient’s complaint of food sticking in her chest and difficulty swallowing was most likely related to the erosive esophagitis found on endoscopy.

A TYPE OF NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA

Normal gastric mucosa contains no lymphoid tissue.^16,17 Primary gastric lymphoma, of which MALT lymphoma is a subtype, accounts for around 5% of gastric malignancies, with an annual incidence rate of 0.5 per 100,000 people. ^18–20 Although rare, it accounts for 60% to 70% of cases of non-Hodgkin lymphoma of the gastrointestinal tract and can involve the perigastric or abdominal lymph nodes or both.^21–23 Although earlier studies suggested that its incidence was increasing, recent data indicate the incidence may be decreasing, thanks to active H pylori treatment.^24–26

Two subtypes of primary gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma commonly described are MALT lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell (DLBC) lymphoma. In the Revised European-American Lymphoma Classification, high-grade MALT lymphoma is comparable to DLBC lymphoma and may have transformed from low-grade MALT lymphoma.^27,28 Another reported subtype, mantle cell lymphoma with MALT lymphoma features, should be considered in the differential diagnosis, although it is rare.²⁹

MALT lymphoma is linked to H pylori

H pylori infection is a factor in the development of MALT lymphoma,³⁰ as multiple lines of evidence show:

• H pylori infection has been reported in more than 90% of patients with MALT lymphoma.^31–35
• H pylori antibodies have been found in stored serum drawn from patients who subsequently developed MALT lymphoma.³⁵
• In response to H pylori antigens, T cells from MALT lymphoma proliferate and cause an increase in tumor immunoglobulin production.³⁶
• In animals experimentally infected with H pylori, around one-third develop lymphoid follicles and lymphoepithelial lesions including B cells, which are similar to human MALT lymphoma.³⁷

However, only a minority of patients with H pylori develop lymphoma, owing to a host immune response that is not well defined.

Second highlight point

• Gastric MALT lymphoma is associated with H pylori.

Associated genetic translocations

Three translocations, t(11;18), t(1;14), and t(14;18), are specifically associated with MALT lymphoma, and the genes involved have been characterized.

The t(11;18) translocation, seen in gastric and nongastric MALT lymphoma, is not seen in H pylori gastritis.³⁸ This translocation is usually associated with extension of the disease outside the stomach (ie, to regional lymph nodes or distal sites).²⁷ Most cases that do not respond to H pylori eradication involve the t(11;18) and t(1;14) translocations.²⁸

Clinical presentation of gastric MALT lymphoma

The average age at presentation with gastric MALT lymphoma is 54 to 58 years.

The most common complaint is nonspecific abdominal pain in the epigastric region, sometimes accompanied by weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and, in a quarter of cases, acute or chronic bleeding.^39–41 Weight loss is common, and its extent is associated with the location and the grade of the disease.

Most cases of MALT lymphoma are found serendipitously during endoscopy, on which the appearance of the lesions ranges from small ulcerations to polypoid masses with infiltrated, thickened folds involving predominantly the antrum or prepyloric region.^15,41

 

MANAGING MALT LYMPHOMA

Our patient undergoes endoscopic ultrasonography, which reveals she has stage I disease, ie, it is limited to the stomach without involving the lymph nodes (stage II), adjacent organs (stage III), or distant organs (stage IV).

3. How will you treat this patient, given the present information?

• Chemotherapy
• Radiation therapy
• Surgery
• Antibiotics with a proton pump inhibitor

Antibiotics with a proton pump inhibitor would be best. According to the Maastricht III Consensus Report,⁴²H pylori eradication is the treatment of first choice for H pylori infection in patients with stage I low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma. This therapy can induce complete histologic remission in 80% to 100% of patients with MALT lymphoma. ⁴³ Several studies have shown regression⁴⁴ or complete remission of low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma after eradication of H pylori with antibiotics, making it a reasonable initial treatment.^45–49

Several regimens are used. The first choice in populations in which the prevalence of resistance to clarithromycin (Biaxin) is less than 15% to 20% is a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and either amoxicillin or metronidazole (Flagyl). (Metronidazole is preferable to amoxicillin if the prevalence of resistance to metronidazole is less than 40%.)

Sequential treatment—ie, 5 days of a proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin followed by 5 additional days of a proton pump inhibitor plus clarithromycin plus tinidazole (Tindamax)— may be better than a 7-day course of the combination of a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin.^50,51

Treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin (500 mg twice a day), and either amoxicillin (1,000 mg twice a day) or metronidazole (400 or 500 mg twice a day) for 14 days is more effective than treatment for 7 days.⁵²

H pylori reinfection in the general population is quite rare, with an estimated yearly rate as low as 2%.⁵³ Recurrence of the infection is a risk factor for lymphoma relapse.^17,54

Several predictors of the response of MALT lymphoma to eradication therapy have been recognized: H pylori positivity, stage I, lymphoma confined to the stomach; gastric wall invasion confined to mucosa and submucosa, and the absence of the t(11;18) translocation.

The time between H pylori eradication and complete remission of primary gastric lymphoma varies and can be longer than 12 months.⁵⁵

Chemotherapy. In a single study,⁵⁶ complete remission was achieved with oral cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) in cases of antibiotic-refractory gastric MALT lymphoma. Comparable results were achieved after radiation therapy (see below); hence, oral monotherapy with cyclophosphamide might also be a suitable second-line therapy.⁵⁷

The regimen of cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunomycin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) has been recommended for patients with stage III and IV disease.^41,58

Rituximab (Rituxan) has been proven effective in treating t(11;18)-positive MALT lymphoma.⁵⁹

Radiation therapy. Two studies have shown a 100% complete response rate after radiation therapy with a median dose of 30 Gy.^57,60 Tsang et al⁶¹ reported complete remission in up to 90% of patients receiving radiation therapy alone, with excellent 5-year progression-free and overall survival rates of 98% and 77%, respectively.

Although surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy have been used in cases in which eradication therapy failed and in more advanced stages of MALT lymphoma, there is no consensus about their use, so therapy must be individualized.

Fourth highlight point

• Antibiotic treatment for eradication of H pylori infection is the recommended treatment only for stage I low-grade MALT lymphoma.

FOLOW-UP

4. How should you follow patients with MALT lymphoma?

• Endoscopy
• H pylori testing
• Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging
• No surveillance required after treatment

Endoscopy is the correct answer. As initial diagnostic biopsies do not exclude aggressive lymphoma, careful endoscopic follow-up is recommended. A recommended schedule is a breath test for H pylori every 2 months in conjunction with repeat endoscopy with biopsies every 3 to 6 months for the first 2 years, and then annually.⁶²

Although H pylori may be eradicated within 1 month of drug therapy, lymphoma may take several months to disappear histologically. In patients with stage I disease with residual lymphoma after H pylori eradication therapy, a simple wait-and-watch strategy is a suitable alternative to oncologic therapy.^63,64

Local relapse may occur after many years of complete remission; thus, patients should be followed closely long-term with endoscopy and possibly endoscopic ultrasonography. ^47–49,63

Patients who fail to attain a complete remission within 12 months should undergo radiation therapy, with or without chemotherapy. The same therapy should be started as soon as possible in patients with progressive disease after antibiotic therapy. Patients negative for H pylori, patients with stage II disease, and patients with t(11;18) translocation should receive antibiotic treatment with endoscopic surveillance every 3 months.

Fifth highlight point

• Surveillance endoscopy is recommended for follow-up of MALT lymphoma.

 

CASE CONTINUES: HER CONDITION IMPROVES, THEN WORSENS

The patient receives a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin for 14 days. Her dysphagia improves, and endoscopy with biopsies 3 months later is negative for MALT lymphoma and H pylori (Figure 2).

However, when she undergoes endoscopy with endoscopic ultrasonography again 6 months after her second endoscopy, it shows multiple 3-to-5-mm smooth nodules in the body of the stomach (Figure 3). Multiple biopsies are then performed; the findings in the gastric body are consistent with extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of MALT type, t(11;18)-negative. Giemsa stain is negative for H pylori.

Computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals no evidence of additional sites of tumor. Positron emission tomography reveals increased uptake in the left tonsillar region, for which she has undergoes an ear, nose, and throat evaluation, and no pathology is found.

Due to recurrence of her marginal zone Bcell lymphoma of MALT type of the stomach, the patient is referred to an oncology service. She is treated with radiation, receiving 15 sessions of 30 Gy localized to the stomach. Three months after radiation therapy, she undergoes endoscopy again, which shows no evidence of the previously described nodules. Repeat biopsies are negative for H pylori and MALT lymphoma.

Annual surveillance endoscopy and computed tomography for the past 3 years have been negative for any tumor recurrence.

A 61-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because for the last 4 weeks she has had difficulty swallowing solid food and a feeling of food “getting stuck in the chest.” She also reports having nausea, mild epigastric pain, and heartburn. She denies having fevers, chills, night sweats, weight loss, vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia, or melena.

Medical history

For the past 20 years, she has had gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), intermittently treated with a proton pump inhibitor. She also has arthritis, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and asthma, and she has undergone right hip replacement for a hip fracture. She has no known allergies.

She lives in the Midwest region of the United States and is on disability due to her arthritis. She is divorced and has three children.

She quit smoking 3 years ago after smoking half a pack per day for 30 years. She drinks socially; she has never used recreational drugs.

She recalls that an uncle had cancer, but she does not know the specific type.

Physical examination

The patient’s temperature is 96.7°F (35.9°C), heart rate 86 per minute, blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 per minute, and oxygen saturation 100% on room air.

She is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. Her sclera are white, her lymph nodes are not palpable, and her heart and lungs appear normal. Her abdomen is tender in the area of the stomach and in the left upper quadrant, there are no signs of peritonitis, the liver and spleen are not enlarged, and no masses can be palpated. She has no asterixis. Results of her complete neurologic examination are normal. Her extremities are normal with no edema. Her laboratory values are shown in Table 1.

Differential diagnosis

Although the differential diagnosis at this stage is broad, a few conditions that commonly present like this are:

• Esophageal cancer
• Esophageal stricture
• Esophageal webs
• Esophagitis (infectious, inflammatory)
• Peptic ulcer disease.

WHICH TEST SHOULD BE ORDERED?

1. Which test will you order now for this patient?

• Endoscopy (esophagogastroduodenoscopy)
• Serum Helicobacter pylori antibody testing
• Wireless pH monitoring
• Barium swallow

Endoscopy would be the best test to order. Esophageal cancer and esophageal stricture must be ruled out, in view of her long history of GERD, gastritis, and smoking and her alarming symptoms of difficulty swallowing and food sticking. In this situation, endoscopy is the first test recommended. In addition to its diagnostic value, it offers an opportunity to obtain tissue samples and to perform a therapeutic intervention, if necessary.^1,2

H pyloriantibody testing is used in the “test-and-treat approach” for H pylori infection, an established management strategy for patients who have uninvestigated dyspepsia and who are younger than 55 years and have no “alarm features,” ie, red flags for cancer. The alarm features commonly described are anemia, early satiety, unexplained weight loss, bleeding, odynophagia, progressive dysphagia, unexplained vomiting, and a family history or prior history of gastrointestinal malignancy.³

Our patient’s symptoms raise the possibility of cancer, so that H pylori testing would not be the best test to order at this point.

Ambulatory wireless pH monitoring with a wireless pH capsule is useful for confirming GERD in those with persistent symptoms (whether typical or atypical) who do not have evidence of mucosal damage on initial endoscopy, particularly if a trial of acid suppression has failed.^4–6

Barium swallow is an x-ray examination of the esophagus with contrast. It can show both the anatomy and the function of the esophagus, and it would be the initial diagnostic procedure of choice for patients with dysphagia who have no alarm symptoms.⁷ However, our patient does have alarm symptoms.

First highlight point

• Endoscopy is the first test in patients with dysphagia with alarm symptoms.

CASE CONTINUES: ENDOSCOPY

The patient undergoes endoscopy, which shows erosive esophagitis (grade B according to the Los Angeles classification⁸), gastritis, and multiple smooth nodules measuring 3 to 5 mm in the body of the stomach (Figure 1).

Multiple biopsies of the nodules show atypical lymphoid infiltrates with small cleaved lymphocytes that are mostly positive for CD5, CD20, and CD43 and negative for CD10 and CD23 by flow cytometry. In addition, a staining test for H pylori is positive.

Comment. Our patient has had GERD for the past 20 years, intermittently treated with a proton pump inhibitor. Acid suppressive therapy with a proton pump inhibitor is the standard of care of patients with erosive esophagitis. In standard doses, these drugs control symptoms in most cases and heal esophagitis in almost 90% of cases within 4 to 8 weeks.⁹ Proton pump inhibitors are also effective for maintaining healing of esophagitis and controlling symptoms in patients who respond to an acute course of therapy for a period of 6 to 12 months.¹⁰

 

WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?

2. Which is the most likely diagnosis for our patient?

• Fundic gland polyps
• Gastric hyperplastic polyps
• Gastric adenomas
• Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma

Fundic gland polyps are small (0.1–0.8 cm), hyperemic, sessile, flat, nodular lesions that have a smooth surface. They occur exclusively in the gastric corpus and are composed of normal gastric corpus-type epithelium arranged in a disorderly or microcystic configuration. ¹¹ This pattern does not match our patient’s findings.

Gastric hyperplastic polyps are elongated, cystic, and distorted foveolar epithelium with marked regeneration. Other histologic findings are stromal inflammation, edema, and smooth muscle hyperplasia.¹² This does not match our patient’s findings.

Adenomas can be flat or polypoid and range in size from a few millimeters to several centimeters. Endoscopically, adenomatous polyps have a velvety, lobulated appearance. Most are solitary (82% of cases), located in the antrum, and less than 2 cm in diameter.¹³ This does not match our patient’s findings.

MALT lymphoma, the correct answer, is characterized by small cleaved lymphocytes positive for CD4, CD20, and CD43. Although CD5 positivity is not characteristic, rare cases of MALT lymphoma may be CD5-positive and may be more aggressive.¹⁴

Other common features of MALT lymphoma are erosions, small nodules, thickening of gastric folds—generally suggesting a benign condition—or hyperemic or even normal gastric mucosa.¹⁵ Our patient’s complaint of food sticking in her chest and difficulty swallowing was most likely related to the erosive esophagitis found on endoscopy.

A TYPE OF NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA

Normal gastric mucosa contains no lymphoid tissue.^16,17 Primary gastric lymphoma, of which MALT lymphoma is a subtype, accounts for around 5% of gastric malignancies, with an annual incidence rate of 0.5 per 100,000 people. ^18–20 Although rare, it accounts for 60% to 70% of cases of non-Hodgkin lymphoma of the gastrointestinal tract and can involve the perigastric or abdominal lymph nodes or both.^21–23 Although earlier studies suggested that its incidence was increasing, recent data indicate the incidence may be decreasing, thanks to active H pylori treatment.^24–26

Two subtypes of primary gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma commonly described are MALT lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell (DLBC) lymphoma. In the Revised European-American Lymphoma Classification, high-grade MALT lymphoma is comparable to DLBC lymphoma and may have transformed from low-grade MALT lymphoma.^27,28 Another reported subtype, mantle cell lymphoma with MALT lymphoma features, should be considered in the differential diagnosis, although it is rare.²⁹

MALT lymphoma is linked to H pylori

H pylori infection is a factor in the development of MALT lymphoma,³⁰ as multiple lines of evidence show:

• H pylori infection has been reported in more than 90% of patients with MALT lymphoma.^31–35
• H pylori antibodies have been found in stored serum drawn from patients who subsequently developed MALT lymphoma.³⁵
• In response to H pylori antigens, T cells from MALT lymphoma proliferate and cause an increase in tumor immunoglobulin production.³⁶
• In animals experimentally infected with H pylori, around one-third develop lymphoid follicles and lymphoepithelial lesions including B cells, which are similar to human MALT lymphoma.³⁷

However, only a minority of patients with H pylori develop lymphoma, owing to a host immune response that is not well defined.

Second highlight point

• Gastric MALT lymphoma is associated with H pylori.

Associated genetic translocations

Three translocations, t(11;18), t(1;14), and t(14;18), are specifically associated with MALT lymphoma, and the genes involved have been characterized.

The t(11;18) translocation, seen in gastric and nongastric MALT lymphoma, is not seen in H pylori gastritis.³⁸ This translocation is usually associated with extension of the disease outside the stomach (ie, to regional lymph nodes or distal sites).²⁷ Most cases that do not respond to H pylori eradication involve the t(11;18) and t(1;14) translocations.²⁸

Clinical presentation of gastric MALT lymphoma

The average age at presentation with gastric MALT lymphoma is 54 to 58 years.

The most common complaint is nonspecific abdominal pain in the epigastric region, sometimes accompanied by weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and, in a quarter of cases, acute or chronic bleeding.^39–41 Weight loss is common, and its extent is associated with the location and the grade of the disease.

Most cases of MALT lymphoma are found serendipitously during endoscopy, on which the appearance of the lesions ranges from small ulcerations to polypoid masses with infiltrated, thickened folds involving predominantly the antrum or prepyloric region.^15,41

 

MANAGING MALT LYMPHOMA

Our patient undergoes endoscopic ultrasonography, which reveals she has stage I disease, ie, it is limited to the stomach without involving the lymph nodes (stage II), adjacent organs (stage III), or distant organs (stage IV).

3. How will you treat this patient, given the present information?

• Chemotherapy
• Radiation therapy
• Surgery
• Antibiotics with a proton pump inhibitor

Antibiotics with a proton pump inhibitor would be best. According to the Maastricht III Consensus Report,⁴²H pylori eradication is the treatment of first choice for H pylori infection in patients with stage I low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma. This therapy can induce complete histologic remission in 80% to 100% of patients with MALT lymphoma. ⁴³ Several studies have shown regression⁴⁴ or complete remission of low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma after eradication of H pylori with antibiotics, making it a reasonable initial treatment.^45–49

Several regimens are used. The first choice in populations in which the prevalence of resistance to clarithromycin (Biaxin) is less than 15% to 20% is a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and either amoxicillin or metronidazole (Flagyl). (Metronidazole is preferable to amoxicillin if the prevalence of resistance to metronidazole is less than 40%.)

Sequential treatment—ie, 5 days of a proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin followed by 5 additional days of a proton pump inhibitor plus clarithromycin plus tinidazole (Tindamax)— may be better than a 7-day course of the combination of a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin.^50,51

Treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin (500 mg twice a day), and either amoxicillin (1,000 mg twice a day) or metronidazole (400 or 500 mg twice a day) for 14 days is more effective than treatment for 7 days.⁵²

H pylori reinfection in the general population is quite rare, with an estimated yearly rate as low as 2%.⁵³ Recurrence of the infection is a risk factor for lymphoma relapse.^17,54

Several predictors of the response of MALT lymphoma to eradication therapy have been recognized: H pylori positivity, stage I, lymphoma confined to the stomach; gastric wall invasion confined to mucosa and submucosa, and the absence of the t(11;18) translocation.

The time between H pylori eradication and complete remission of primary gastric lymphoma varies and can be longer than 12 months.⁵⁵

Chemotherapy. In a single study,⁵⁶ complete remission was achieved with oral cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) in cases of antibiotic-refractory gastric MALT lymphoma. Comparable results were achieved after radiation therapy (see below); hence, oral monotherapy with cyclophosphamide might also be a suitable second-line therapy.⁵⁷

The regimen of cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunomycin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) has been recommended for patients with stage III and IV disease.^41,58

Rituximab (Rituxan) has been proven effective in treating t(11;18)-positive MALT lymphoma.⁵⁹

Radiation therapy. Two studies have shown a 100% complete response rate after radiation therapy with a median dose of 30 Gy.^57,60 Tsang et al⁶¹ reported complete remission in up to 90% of patients receiving radiation therapy alone, with excellent 5-year progression-free and overall survival rates of 98% and 77%, respectively.

Although surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy have been used in cases in which eradication therapy failed and in more advanced stages of MALT lymphoma, there is no consensus about their use, so therapy must be individualized.

Fourth highlight point

• Antibiotic treatment for eradication of H pylori infection is the recommended treatment only for stage I low-grade MALT lymphoma.

FOLOW-UP

4. How should you follow patients with MALT lymphoma?

• Endoscopy
• H pylori testing
• Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging
• No surveillance required after treatment

Endoscopy is the correct answer. As initial diagnostic biopsies do not exclude aggressive lymphoma, careful endoscopic follow-up is recommended. A recommended schedule is a breath test for H pylori every 2 months in conjunction with repeat endoscopy with biopsies every 3 to 6 months for the first 2 years, and then annually.⁶²

Although H pylori may be eradicated within 1 month of drug therapy, lymphoma may take several months to disappear histologically. In patients with stage I disease with residual lymphoma after H pylori eradication therapy, a simple wait-and-watch strategy is a suitable alternative to oncologic therapy.^63,64

Local relapse may occur after many years of complete remission; thus, patients should be followed closely long-term with endoscopy and possibly endoscopic ultrasonography. ^47–49,63

Patients who fail to attain a complete remission within 12 months should undergo radiation therapy, with or without chemotherapy. The same therapy should be started as soon as possible in patients with progressive disease after antibiotic therapy. Patients negative for H pylori, patients with stage II disease, and patients with t(11;18) translocation should receive antibiotic treatment with endoscopic surveillance every 3 months.

Fifth highlight point

• Surveillance endoscopy is recommended for follow-up of MALT lymphoma.

 

CASE CONTINUES: HER CONDITION IMPROVES, THEN WORSENS

The patient receives a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin for 14 days. Her dysphagia improves, and endoscopy with biopsies 3 months later is negative for MALT lymphoma and H pylori (Figure 2).

However, when she undergoes endoscopy with endoscopic ultrasonography again 6 months after her second endoscopy, it shows multiple 3-to-5-mm smooth nodules in the body of the stomach (Figure 3). Multiple biopsies are then performed; the findings in the gastric body are consistent with extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of MALT type, t(11;18)-negative. Giemsa stain is negative for H pylori.

Computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals no evidence of additional sites of tumor. Positron emission tomography reveals increased uptake in the left tonsillar region, for which she has undergoes an ear, nose, and throat evaluation, and no pathology is found.

Due to recurrence of her marginal zone Bcell lymphoma of MALT type of the stomach, the patient is referred to an oncology service. She is treated with radiation, receiving 15 sessions of 30 Gy localized to the stomach. Three months after radiation therapy, she undergoes endoscopy again, which shows no evidence of the previously described nodules. Repeat biopsies are negative for H pylori and MALT lymphoma.

Annual surveillance endoscopy and computed tomography for the past 3 years have been negative for any tumor recurrence.

A 61-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because for the last 4 weeks she has had difficulty swallowing solid food and a feeling of food “getting stuck in the chest.” She also reports having nausea, mild epigastric pain, and heartburn. She denies having fevers, chills, night sweats, weight loss, vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia, or melena.

Medical history

For the past 20 years, she has had gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), intermittently treated with a proton pump inhibitor. She also has arthritis, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and asthma, and she has undergone right hip replacement for a hip fracture. She has no known allergies.

She lives in the Midwest region of the United States and is on disability due to her arthritis. She is divorced and has three children.

She quit smoking 3 years ago after smoking half a pack per day for 30 years. She drinks socially; she has never used recreational drugs.

She recalls that an uncle had cancer, but she does not know the specific type.

Physical examination

The patient’s temperature is 96.7°F (35.9°C), heart rate 86 per minute, blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 per minute, and oxygen saturation 100% on room air.

She is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. Her sclera are white, her lymph nodes are not palpable, and her heart and lungs appear normal. Her abdomen is tender in the area of the stomach and in the left upper quadrant, there are no signs of peritonitis, the liver and spleen are not enlarged, and no masses can be palpated. She has no asterixis. Results of her complete neurologic examination are normal. Her extremities are normal with no edema. Her laboratory values are shown in Table 1.

Differential diagnosis

Although the differential diagnosis at this stage is broad, a few conditions that commonly present like this are:

• Esophageal cancer
• Esophageal stricture
• Esophageal webs
• Esophagitis (infectious, inflammatory)
• Peptic ulcer disease.

WHICH TEST SHOULD BE ORDERED?

1. Which test will you order now for this patient?

• Endoscopy (esophagogastroduodenoscopy)
• Serum Helicobacter pylori antibody testing
• Wireless pH monitoring
• Barium swallow

Endoscopy would be the best test to order. Esophageal cancer and esophageal stricture must be ruled out, in view of her long history of GERD, gastritis, and smoking and her alarming symptoms of difficulty swallowing and food sticking. In this situation, endoscopy is the first test recommended. In addition to its diagnostic value, it offers an opportunity to obtain tissue samples and to perform a therapeutic intervention, if necessary.^1,2

H pyloriantibody testing is used in the “test-and-treat approach” for H pylori infection, an established management strategy for patients who have uninvestigated dyspepsia and who are younger than 55 years and have no “alarm features,” ie, red flags for cancer. The alarm features commonly described are anemia, early satiety, unexplained weight loss, bleeding, odynophagia, progressive dysphagia, unexplained vomiting, and a family history or prior history of gastrointestinal malignancy.³

Our patient’s symptoms raise the possibility of cancer, so that H pylori testing would not be the best test to order at this point.

Ambulatory wireless pH monitoring with a wireless pH capsule is useful for confirming GERD in those with persistent symptoms (whether typical or atypical) who do not have evidence of mucosal damage on initial endoscopy, particularly if a trial of acid suppression has failed.^4–6

Barium swallow is an x-ray examination of the esophagus with contrast. It can show both the anatomy and the function of the esophagus, and it would be the initial diagnostic procedure of choice for patients with dysphagia who have no alarm symptoms.⁷ However, our patient does have alarm symptoms.

First highlight point

• Endoscopy is the first test in patients with dysphagia with alarm symptoms.

CASE CONTINUES: ENDOSCOPY

The patient undergoes endoscopy, which shows erosive esophagitis (grade B according to the Los Angeles classification⁸), gastritis, and multiple smooth nodules measuring 3 to 5 mm in the body of the stomach (Figure 1).

Multiple biopsies of the nodules show atypical lymphoid infiltrates with small cleaved lymphocytes that are mostly positive for CD5, CD20, and CD43 and negative for CD10 and CD23 by flow cytometry. In addition, a staining test for H pylori is positive.

Comment. Our patient has had GERD for the past 20 years, intermittently treated with a proton pump inhibitor. Acid suppressive therapy with a proton pump inhibitor is the standard of care of patients with erosive esophagitis. In standard doses, these drugs control symptoms in most cases and heal esophagitis in almost 90% of cases within 4 to 8 weeks.⁹ Proton pump inhibitors are also effective for maintaining healing of esophagitis and controlling symptoms in patients who respond to an acute course of therapy for a period of 6 to 12 months.¹⁰

 

WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?

2. Which is the most likely diagnosis for our patient?

• Fundic gland polyps
• Gastric hyperplastic polyps
• Gastric adenomas
• Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma

Fundic gland polyps are small (0.1–0.8 cm), hyperemic, sessile, flat, nodular lesions that have a smooth surface. They occur exclusively in the gastric corpus and are composed of normal gastric corpus-type epithelium arranged in a disorderly or microcystic configuration. ¹¹ This pattern does not match our patient’s findings.

Gastric hyperplastic polyps are elongated, cystic, and distorted foveolar epithelium with marked regeneration. Other histologic findings are stromal inflammation, edema, and smooth muscle hyperplasia.¹² This does not match our patient’s findings.

Adenomas can be flat or polypoid and range in size from a few millimeters to several centimeters. Endoscopically, adenomatous polyps have a velvety, lobulated appearance. Most are solitary (82% of cases), located in the antrum, and less than 2 cm in diameter.¹³ This does not match our patient’s findings.

MALT lymphoma, the correct answer, is characterized by small cleaved lymphocytes positive for CD4, CD20, and CD43. Although CD5 positivity is not characteristic, rare cases of MALT lymphoma may be CD5-positive and may be more aggressive.¹⁴

Other common features of MALT lymphoma are erosions, small nodules, thickening of gastric folds—generally suggesting a benign condition—or hyperemic or even normal gastric mucosa.¹⁵ Our patient’s complaint of food sticking in her chest and difficulty swallowing was most likely related to the erosive esophagitis found on endoscopy.

A TYPE OF NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA

Normal gastric mucosa contains no lymphoid tissue.^16,17 Primary gastric lymphoma, of which MALT lymphoma is a subtype, accounts for around 5% of gastric malignancies, with an annual incidence rate of 0.5 per 100,000 people. ^18–20 Although rare, it accounts for 60% to 70% of cases of non-Hodgkin lymphoma of the gastrointestinal tract and can involve the perigastric or abdominal lymph nodes or both.^21–23 Although earlier studies suggested that its incidence was increasing, recent data indicate the incidence may be decreasing, thanks to active H pylori treatment.^24–26

Two subtypes of primary gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma commonly described are MALT lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell (DLBC) lymphoma. In the Revised European-American Lymphoma Classification, high-grade MALT lymphoma is comparable to DLBC lymphoma and may have transformed from low-grade MALT lymphoma.^27,28 Another reported subtype, mantle cell lymphoma with MALT lymphoma features, should be considered in the differential diagnosis, although it is rare.²⁹

MALT lymphoma is linked to H pylori

H pylori infection is a factor in the development of MALT lymphoma,³⁰ as multiple lines of evidence show:

• H pylori infection has been reported in more than 90% of patients with MALT lymphoma.^31–35
• H pylori antibodies have been found in stored serum drawn from patients who subsequently developed MALT lymphoma.³⁵
• In response to H pylori antigens, T cells from MALT lymphoma proliferate and cause an increase in tumor immunoglobulin production.³⁶
• In animals experimentally infected with H pylori, around one-third develop lymphoid follicles and lymphoepithelial lesions including B cells, which are similar to human MALT lymphoma.³⁷

However, only a minority of patients with H pylori develop lymphoma, owing to a host immune response that is not well defined.

Second highlight point

• Gastric MALT lymphoma is associated with H pylori.

Associated genetic translocations

Three translocations, t(11;18), t(1;14), and t(14;18), are specifically associated with MALT lymphoma, and the genes involved have been characterized.

The t(11;18) translocation, seen in gastric and nongastric MALT lymphoma, is not seen in H pylori gastritis.³⁸ This translocation is usually associated with extension of the disease outside the stomach (ie, to regional lymph nodes or distal sites).²⁷ Most cases that do not respond to H pylori eradication involve the t(11;18) and t(1;14) translocations.²⁸

Clinical presentation of gastric MALT lymphoma

The average age at presentation with gastric MALT lymphoma is 54 to 58 years.

The most common complaint is nonspecific abdominal pain in the epigastric region, sometimes accompanied by weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and, in a quarter of cases, acute or chronic bleeding.^39–41 Weight loss is common, and its extent is associated with the location and the grade of the disease.

Most cases of MALT lymphoma are found serendipitously during endoscopy, on which the appearance of the lesions ranges from small ulcerations to polypoid masses with infiltrated, thickened folds involving predominantly the antrum or prepyloric region.^15,41

 

MANAGING MALT LYMPHOMA

Our patient undergoes endoscopic ultrasonography, which reveals she has stage I disease, ie, it is limited to the stomach without involving the lymph nodes (stage II), adjacent organs (stage III), or distant organs (stage IV).

3. How will you treat this patient, given the present information?

• Chemotherapy
• Radiation therapy
• Surgery
• Antibiotics with a proton pump inhibitor

Antibiotics with a proton pump inhibitor would be best. According to the Maastricht III Consensus Report,⁴²H pylori eradication is the treatment of first choice for H pylori infection in patients with stage I low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma. This therapy can induce complete histologic remission in 80% to 100% of patients with MALT lymphoma. ⁴³ Several studies have shown regression⁴⁴ or complete remission of low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma after eradication of H pylori with antibiotics, making it a reasonable initial treatment.^45–49

Several regimens are used. The first choice in populations in which the prevalence of resistance to clarithromycin (Biaxin) is less than 15% to 20% is a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and either amoxicillin or metronidazole (Flagyl). (Metronidazole is preferable to amoxicillin if the prevalence of resistance to metronidazole is less than 40%.)

Sequential treatment—ie, 5 days of a proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin followed by 5 additional days of a proton pump inhibitor plus clarithromycin plus tinidazole (Tindamax)— may be better than a 7-day course of the combination of a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin.^50,51

Treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin (500 mg twice a day), and either amoxicillin (1,000 mg twice a day) or metronidazole (400 or 500 mg twice a day) for 14 days is more effective than treatment for 7 days.⁵²

H pylori reinfection in the general population is quite rare, with an estimated yearly rate as low as 2%.⁵³ Recurrence of the infection is a risk factor for lymphoma relapse.^17,54

Several predictors of the response of MALT lymphoma to eradication therapy have been recognized: H pylori positivity, stage I, lymphoma confined to the stomach; gastric wall invasion confined to mucosa and submucosa, and the absence of the t(11;18) translocation.

The time between H pylori eradication and complete remission of primary gastric lymphoma varies and can be longer than 12 months.⁵⁵

Chemotherapy. In a single study,⁵⁶ complete remission was achieved with oral cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) in cases of antibiotic-refractory gastric MALT lymphoma. Comparable results were achieved after radiation therapy (see below); hence, oral monotherapy with cyclophosphamide might also be a suitable second-line therapy.⁵⁷

The regimen of cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunomycin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP) has been recommended for patients with stage III and IV disease.^41,58

Rituximab (Rituxan) has been proven effective in treating t(11;18)-positive MALT lymphoma.⁵⁹

Radiation therapy. Two studies have shown a 100% complete response rate after radiation therapy with a median dose of 30 Gy.^57,60 Tsang et al⁶¹ reported complete remission in up to 90% of patients receiving radiation therapy alone, with excellent 5-year progression-free and overall survival rates of 98% and 77%, respectively.

Although surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy have been used in cases in which eradication therapy failed and in more advanced stages of MALT lymphoma, there is no consensus about their use, so therapy must be individualized.

Fourth highlight point

• Antibiotic treatment for eradication of H pylori infection is the recommended treatment only for stage I low-grade MALT lymphoma.

FOLOW-UP

4. How should you follow patients with MALT lymphoma?

• Endoscopy
• H pylori testing
• Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging
• No surveillance required after treatment

Endoscopy is the correct answer. As initial diagnostic biopsies do not exclude aggressive lymphoma, careful endoscopic follow-up is recommended. A recommended schedule is a breath test for H pylori every 2 months in conjunction with repeat endoscopy with biopsies every 3 to 6 months for the first 2 years, and then annually.⁶²

Although H pylori may be eradicated within 1 month of drug therapy, lymphoma may take several months to disappear histologically. In patients with stage I disease with residual lymphoma after H pylori eradication therapy, a simple wait-and-watch strategy is a suitable alternative to oncologic therapy.^63,64

Local relapse may occur after many years of complete remission; thus, patients should be followed closely long-term with endoscopy and possibly endoscopic ultrasonography. ^47–49,63

Patients who fail to attain a complete remission within 12 months should undergo radiation therapy, with or without chemotherapy. The same therapy should be started as soon as possible in patients with progressive disease after antibiotic therapy. Patients negative for H pylori, patients with stage II disease, and patients with t(11;18) translocation should receive antibiotic treatment with endoscopic surveillance every 3 months.

Fifth highlight point

• Surveillance endoscopy is recommended for follow-up of MALT lymphoma.

 

CASE CONTINUES: HER CONDITION IMPROVES, THEN WORSENS

The patient receives a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin for 14 days. Her dysphagia improves, and endoscopy with biopsies 3 months later is negative for MALT lymphoma and H pylori (Figure 2).

However, when she undergoes endoscopy with endoscopic ultrasonography again 6 months after her second endoscopy, it shows multiple 3-to-5-mm smooth nodules in the body of the stomach (Figure 3). Multiple biopsies are then performed; the findings in the gastric body are consistent with extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of MALT type, t(11;18)-negative. Giemsa stain is negative for H pylori.

Computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals no evidence of additional sites of tumor. Positron emission tomography reveals increased uptake in the left tonsillar region, for which she has undergoes an ear, nose, and throat evaluation, and no pathology is found.

Due to recurrence of her marginal zone Bcell lymphoma of MALT type of the stomach, the patient is referred to an oncology service. She is treated with radiation, receiving 15 sessions of 30 Gy localized to the stomach. Three months after radiation therapy, she undergoes endoscopy again, which shows no evidence of the previously described nodules. Repeat biopsies are negative for H pylori and MALT lymphoma.

Annual surveillance endoscopy and computed tomography for the past 3 years have been negative for any tumor recurrence.

A 40-year-old man who works as a roofer began, 1 week ago, to experience episodes of generalized weakness, perioral numbness, and diffuse paresthesias. In the past he has had recurring nosebleeds but no history of other medical conditions.

His recent “spells” come on abruptly and spontaneously, without warning, and last about 15 minutes. He never loses consciousness, but he reports a feeling of derealization or an out-of-body experience—he can hear the people around him talking during the spells, but he feels that everything is far away. He has been having about three episodes per day. They typically occur after mild exertion or heavy lifting, and each episode resolves with complete rest. He has had no nausea, vomiting, loss of bowel or bladder control, fever, chills, or traumatic brain injury.

The patient first reported to the emergency department of a local hospital for evaluation. There, he underwent computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast, which showed nothing abnormal. However, he had an episode while in the emergency department, which prompted his physician to admit him to the hospital.

In the hospital, he underwent an extensive medical evaluation. CT angiography revealed no evidence of vasculitis or occlusive disease. Results of electroencephalography during these spells were normal. Results of magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical and lumbar spine were also normal.

A neurologist was consulted. Concerned that the spells were due to paradoxical emboli coming through a patent foramen ovale, the neurologist recommended transthoracic echocardiography with agitated saline. This study showed a normal ejection fraction and a right-to-left shunt through a left pulmonary arteriovenous malformation (AVM). Unfortunately, the shunt fraction could not be estimated because the patient had another episode during the procedure, and so the procedure was cut short. CT of the chest confirmed a large AVM in the upper lobe of the left lung (Figure 1).

The patient is transferred

The patient’s physician requested that he be transferred to Mayo Clinic for further evaluation.

When he arrived, we performed a complete physical examination, in which we noted scattered erythematous maculopapular telangiectases in the lower lips and significant digital clubbing (Figure 2). He could not recall any family members having rheumatologic or cardiovascular diseases, but he recalled that his father has oral telangiectases and recurrent epistaxis.

His examination was interrupted by yet another spell, during which his oxygen saturation fell to 85%. We immediately started giving him oxygen by nasal cannula, which raised his oxygen saturation to 96%, and the spell promptly ended.

Results of routine laboratory tests are shown in Table 1.

After his physical examination was completed and his records from the other hospital were reviewed, a diagnosis was made. No further diagnostic studies were pursued.

WHICH IS THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS?

1. Based on the information available, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
• Osler-Weber-Rendu disease
• Subarachnoid hemorrhage
• Conversion disorder
• Atrial septal defect

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures begin with abrupt loss of consciousness, followed by stiffening of the body and extremities. This is the tonic phase, which may last for 1 minute. The clonic phase follows, characterized by abnormal jerking and teeth-clenching (raising the concern that the patient will bite his or her tongue). The clonic phase lasts 1 to 2 minutes. After a seizure, confusion and headache are common. On electroencephalography, epileptiform abnormalities are documented in about 23% of patients with a first documented seizure.¹

Our patient’s history of remaining fully conscious and of having normal electroencephalographic findings during his spells does not suggest generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

Osler-Weber-Rendu disease is also known as hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT). Its pathophysiology is complex, and it is believed to be related to mutations in an endothelial protein² that lead to abnormal vascular structures. The estimated prevalence in European studies is 1 in 5,000; in Japanese studies it is 1 in 8,000.^3–4

The diagnosis of HHT is based on four clinical criteria:

• Spontaneous and recurrent epistaxis
• Multiple mucocutaneous telangiectases
• Pulmonary, cerebral, or gastrointestinal AVMs
• A first-degree relative with the disease.

The presence of three or four of these criteria establishes a “definite” diagnosis, while fewer than two makes it “unlikely.”⁵ Since the spectrum of this disease is wide, varying from mild epistaxis to iron-deficiency anemia, its diagnosis is often missed.⁶

Our patient meets at least three of the criteria—recurrent epistaxis, oral telangiectases, and a CT-documented pulmonary AVM. His father has a history of oral telangiectases and epistaxis but was never formally diagnosed with HHT. The patient presented with spells of weakness and paresthesias from worsening hypoxemia due to an enlarged pulmonary AVM. Thus, based on these features, HHT is the most likely diagnosis.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is commonly from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. Common symptoms include sudden, severe headaches with focal neurologic deficits, a stiff neck, brief loss of consciousness, nausea, and vomiting.⁷

Our patient’s CT scan showed no intracranial bleeding, and CT angiography showed no evidence of aneurysm. Thus, he has neither clinical nor radiographic features of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Conversion disorder is typically associated with psychological stressors.⁸ It is characterized by the sudden onset of neurologic deficits such as blindness, paralysis, and numbness that cannot be explained by a general medical condition.

Our patient has a known pulmonary AVM with clinical and laboratory findings of hypoxemia that explain his spells. Therefore, the diagnosis of conversion disorder cannot be made.

A right-to-left intracardiac shunt can be present in patients with patent foramen ovale, atrial septal defects with shunt reversal, Eisenmenger syndrome, or tetralogy of Fallot (even in adults). It can present with hypoxemia and neurologic weakness.

Our patient’s echocardiogram ruled out these conditions.

 

MANIFESTATIONS OF HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA

2. Which is the most common clinical manifestation of HHT?

• Epistaxis
• Mucocutaneous telangiectases
• Hematochezia
• Dyspnea

Epistaxis is the most common presentation, occurring in more than 90% of patients.⁹ Many patients experience only mild occasional nosebleeds that are not frequent or severe enough to cause anemia or to lead to medical treatment or consultation. Others, however, have heavy, frequent bleeding that requires invasive interventions.¹⁰

Mucocutaneous telangiectases are the second most common clinical manifestation, documented in about 75% of patients. They are cosmetically unpleasant but rarely bleed. They occur most commonly on the face, lips, tongue, and fingertips, and they increase in size and number with age.¹¹

Gastrointestinal bleeding, sometimes manifesting as hematochezia, occurs in one-third of people with HHT. It most commonly presents with iron-deficiency anemia in patients over age 40.¹²

Dyspnea. Pulmonary AVMs occur in 30% to 50% of affected people, but interestingly, most patients with pulmonary AVMs have no respiratory symptoms, including dyspnea.

In pulmonary AVMs, abnormal vessels replace normal capillary beds, creating a capillary-free communication between the pulmonary and systemic circulations. This abnormal connection prevents blood from the pulmonary arterial system from being oxygenated, resulting in hypoxemia and secondary polycythemia, as in our patient. One-third of patients have evidence of right-to-left shunting, such as the clubbing in our patient.^9,13

Other, less common complications of HHT include seizures or hemorrhage from cerebral AVMs and stroke and brain abscesses from paradoxical embolization due to the loss of the capillary filter in the pulmonary vascular bed. Hepatic involvement may result in portal hypertension and hepatic encephalopathy.¹⁴

Back to our patient

As mentioned above, during one of the patient’s spells of paresthesia and weakness, we noted his oxygen saturation by oximetry was 85%. At that time, his arterial Po₂ was also low at 50 mm Hg (normal 70–100). With oxygen supplementation, his spell completely resolved and his Po₂ improved to 80 mm Hg. Though the shunt fraction of his pulmonary AVM was never measured, it was likely less than 30% of the cardiac output, as his hypoxemia improved with oxygen supplementation alone.¹⁵ When he was taken off oxygen supplementation, his spells recurred, but with oxygen support he remained clinically stable.

MANAGEMENT

3. Which is the next logical step in our patient’s management?

• Consult a surgeon for lobectomy
• Consult an interventional radiologist for embolization therapy
• Transfer to the intensive care unit for elective intubation
• Observe with close follow-up

Untreated pulmonary AVMs enlarge at an estimated rate of 0.3 mm/year. The estimated death rate is up to 15.8% per year, with most deaths resulting from stroke, cerebral abscess, hemoptysis, and hemothorax.^16–18 Common indications for treatment are progressively enlarging lesions, symptomatic hypoxemia, and paradoxical embolization.¹⁹ Pulmonary AVMs in which the feeding artery is 3 mm or more in diameter require treatment.

Embolization therapy, in which the AVM is occluded angiographically, is considered a first-line treatment for pulmonary AVM, with a procedural success rate (defined as involution of the AVM) of 97%.²⁰ Embolization therapy allows patients to avoid major surgery, with its potential complications, and it has a shorter recovery time.

Surgical procedures such as excision, vascular ligation, or lobectomy can be considered if the lesion cannot be treated by embolization or if the patient has an anaphylactic allergy to contrast dyes.

This patient had no clinical signs of impending respiratory failure requiring elective intubation.

Since he was experiencing symptoms, there is no role for observation in this case.

Back to our patient

An interventional radiologist was consulted, and the patient underwent bilateral pulmonary artery angiography with successful coil embolization of his large left-upper-lobe AVM. He was weaned off oxygen and had no further spells of generalized weakness and paresthesias.

Given his father’s history of recurrent epistaxis and oral telangiectases, the patient asks about the risk of his children acquiring this disease.

GENETICS OF HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA

4. Which of the following is the inheritance pattern for HHT?

• Autosomal dominant
• Autosomal recessive
• Maternal inheritance
• X-linked recessive

The inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant with variable expression and penetrance. At least four different mutations have been identified in genes on chromosomes 9 and 12 that result in abnormal vascular malformations.^21–24 The other modes of inheritance have not been described in HHT.

 

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR OUR PATIENT

5. Which of the following is not recommended for our patient?

• Consideration of genetic testing
• Consideration of screening of first-degree relatives
• Dental prophylaxis
• Scuba diving

Genetic testing. The molecular diagnosis of HHT is primarily based on sequencing of the entire coding regions of the ENG and ALK1 genes on chromosomes 9 and 12, respectively. The interpretation of these results is quite complex. The clinical genetics laboratories in North America that currently offer molecular diagnostic testing for HHT recommend that testing be coordinated and ordered through a center that specializes in this disease or by a genetics professional. Testing of the index case is performed to confirm the clinical diagnosis and also to determine if genetic testing will be possible in at-risk relatives. Further genetic testing should be pursued in at-risk family members only if the index case has a positive result.²⁵

Screening of relatives. Given that HHT is an autosomal dominant disease, the current practice is to offer molecular genetic screening early in life for first-degree relatives.^25,26 The external signs such as telangiectases and nosebleeds may not manifest until the second or third decade of life. However, AVMs in the brain, spinal cord, lungs, and liver are usually congenital and may present suddenly and with serious complications, even in childhood.

Dental prophylaxis. People with HHT and a pulmonary AVM are at risk of bacteremia and consequent brain abscesses after dental procedures. Antibiotic prophylaxis is therefore highly recommended.²⁷

One sport to avoid. There have been several case reports of paradoxical air emboli occurring in patients with HHT complicated by a pulmonary AVM. Hsu et al²⁸ reported a 31-year-old man with an undiagnosed large pulmonary AVM and HHT who became comatose with diffuse bilateral hemispheric brain swelling on head CT after scuba diving, due to air embolism.

The HHT Foundation International recommends that people with this disease avoid scuba diving (the only sport to be avoided) owing to the risk of air emboli from small lung AVMs. It also recommends that patients alert health care providers about their risk of air embolism whenever intravenous access is being established.

Back to our patient

The patient met with a geneticist, and blood was collected for genetic testing before he was sent home. Additionally, the need to screen his first-degree relatives was thoroughly discussed. Four days after discharge he returned to work, and his spells have not recurred. He has a follow-up appointment scheduled with a pulmonologist specializing in this disease for the results of genetic testing and for continued management.

TAKE-HOME POINTS

• The diagnosis of HHT is based on the following four clinical criteria: spontaneous or recurrent epistaxis, multiple mucocutaneous telangiectases, visceral involvement (eg, cerebral, pulmonary, or gastrointestinal AVM), and a first-degree relative with this disease.
• The diagnosis may be confirmed with genetic testing.
• The diagnosis may be underreported, given the wide spectrum of disease presentation, from inconsequential epistaxis to massive gastrointestinal bleeding.
• HHT is autosomal dominant, and therefore all first-degree relatives should be screened.

A 40-year-old man who works as a roofer began, 1 week ago, to experience episodes of generalized weakness, perioral numbness, and diffuse paresthesias. In the past he has had recurring nosebleeds but no history of other medical conditions.

His recent “spells” come on abruptly and spontaneously, without warning, and last about 15 minutes. He never loses consciousness, but he reports a feeling of derealization or an out-of-body experience—he can hear the people around him talking during the spells, but he feels that everything is far away. He has been having about three episodes per day. They typically occur after mild exertion or heavy lifting, and each episode resolves with complete rest. He has had no nausea, vomiting, loss of bowel or bladder control, fever, chills, or traumatic brain injury.

The patient first reported to the emergency department of a local hospital for evaluation. There, he underwent computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast, which showed nothing abnormal. However, he had an episode while in the emergency department, which prompted his physician to admit him to the hospital.

In the hospital, he underwent an extensive medical evaluation. CT angiography revealed no evidence of vasculitis or occlusive disease. Results of electroencephalography during these spells were normal. Results of magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical and lumbar spine were also normal.

A neurologist was consulted. Concerned that the spells were due to paradoxical emboli coming through a patent foramen ovale, the neurologist recommended transthoracic echocardiography with agitated saline. This study showed a normal ejection fraction and a right-to-left shunt through a left pulmonary arteriovenous malformation (AVM). Unfortunately, the shunt fraction could not be estimated because the patient had another episode during the procedure, and so the procedure was cut short. CT of the chest confirmed a large AVM in the upper lobe of the left lung (Figure 1).

The patient is transferred

The patient’s physician requested that he be transferred to Mayo Clinic for further evaluation.

When he arrived, we performed a complete physical examination, in which we noted scattered erythematous maculopapular telangiectases in the lower lips and significant digital clubbing (Figure 2). He could not recall any family members having rheumatologic or cardiovascular diseases, but he recalled that his father has oral telangiectases and recurrent epistaxis.

His examination was interrupted by yet another spell, during which his oxygen saturation fell to 85%. We immediately started giving him oxygen by nasal cannula, which raised his oxygen saturation to 96%, and the spell promptly ended.

Results of routine laboratory tests are shown in Table 1.

After his physical examination was completed and his records from the other hospital were reviewed, a diagnosis was made. No further diagnostic studies were pursued.

WHICH IS THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS?

1. Based on the information available, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
• Osler-Weber-Rendu disease
• Subarachnoid hemorrhage
• Conversion disorder
• Atrial septal defect

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures begin with abrupt loss of consciousness, followed by stiffening of the body and extremities. This is the tonic phase, which may last for 1 minute. The clonic phase follows, characterized by abnormal jerking and teeth-clenching (raising the concern that the patient will bite his or her tongue). The clonic phase lasts 1 to 2 minutes. After a seizure, confusion and headache are common. On electroencephalography, epileptiform abnormalities are documented in about 23% of patients with a first documented seizure.¹

Our patient’s history of remaining fully conscious and of having normal electroencephalographic findings during his spells does not suggest generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

Osler-Weber-Rendu disease is also known as hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT). Its pathophysiology is complex, and it is believed to be related to mutations in an endothelial protein² that lead to abnormal vascular structures. The estimated prevalence in European studies is 1 in 5,000; in Japanese studies it is 1 in 8,000.^3–4

The diagnosis of HHT is based on four clinical criteria:

• Spontaneous and recurrent epistaxis
• Multiple mucocutaneous telangiectases
• Pulmonary, cerebral, or gastrointestinal AVMs
• A first-degree relative with the disease.

The presence of three or four of these criteria establishes a “definite” diagnosis, while fewer than two makes it “unlikely.”⁵ Since the spectrum of this disease is wide, varying from mild epistaxis to iron-deficiency anemia, its diagnosis is often missed.⁶

Our patient meets at least three of the criteria—recurrent epistaxis, oral telangiectases, and a CT-documented pulmonary AVM. His father has a history of oral telangiectases and epistaxis but was never formally diagnosed with HHT. The patient presented with spells of weakness and paresthesias from worsening hypoxemia due to an enlarged pulmonary AVM. Thus, based on these features, HHT is the most likely diagnosis.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is commonly from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. Common symptoms include sudden, severe headaches with focal neurologic deficits, a stiff neck, brief loss of consciousness, nausea, and vomiting.⁷

Our patient’s CT scan showed no intracranial bleeding, and CT angiography showed no evidence of aneurysm. Thus, he has neither clinical nor radiographic features of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Conversion disorder is typically associated with psychological stressors.⁸ It is characterized by the sudden onset of neurologic deficits such as blindness, paralysis, and numbness that cannot be explained by a general medical condition.

Our patient has a known pulmonary AVM with clinical and laboratory findings of hypoxemia that explain his spells. Therefore, the diagnosis of conversion disorder cannot be made.

A right-to-left intracardiac shunt can be present in patients with patent foramen ovale, atrial septal defects with shunt reversal, Eisenmenger syndrome, or tetralogy of Fallot (even in adults). It can present with hypoxemia and neurologic weakness.

Our patient’s echocardiogram ruled out these conditions.

 

MANIFESTATIONS OF HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA

2. Which is the most common clinical manifestation of HHT?

• Epistaxis
• Mucocutaneous telangiectases
• Hematochezia
• Dyspnea

Epistaxis is the most common presentation, occurring in more than 90% of patients.⁹ Many patients experience only mild occasional nosebleeds that are not frequent or severe enough to cause anemia or to lead to medical treatment or consultation. Others, however, have heavy, frequent bleeding that requires invasive interventions.¹⁰

Mucocutaneous telangiectases are the second most common clinical manifestation, documented in about 75% of patients. They are cosmetically unpleasant but rarely bleed. They occur most commonly on the face, lips, tongue, and fingertips, and they increase in size and number with age.¹¹

Gastrointestinal bleeding, sometimes manifesting as hematochezia, occurs in one-third of people with HHT. It most commonly presents with iron-deficiency anemia in patients over age 40.¹²

Dyspnea. Pulmonary AVMs occur in 30% to 50% of affected people, but interestingly, most patients with pulmonary AVMs have no respiratory symptoms, including dyspnea.

In pulmonary AVMs, abnormal vessels replace normal capillary beds, creating a capillary-free communication between the pulmonary and systemic circulations. This abnormal connection prevents blood from the pulmonary arterial system from being oxygenated, resulting in hypoxemia and secondary polycythemia, as in our patient. One-third of patients have evidence of right-to-left shunting, such as the clubbing in our patient.^9,13

Other, less common complications of HHT include seizures or hemorrhage from cerebral AVMs and stroke and brain abscesses from paradoxical embolization due to the loss of the capillary filter in the pulmonary vascular bed. Hepatic involvement may result in portal hypertension and hepatic encephalopathy.¹⁴

Back to our patient

As mentioned above, during one of the patient’s spells of paresthesia and weakness, we noted his oxygen saturation by oximetry was 85%. At that time, his arterial Po₂ was also low at 50 mm Hg (normal 70–100). With oxygen supplementation, his spell completely resolved and his Po₂ improved to 80 mm Hg. Though the shunt fraction of his pulmonary AVM was never measured, it was likely less than 30% of the cardiac output, as his hypoxemia improved with oxygen supplementation alone.¹⁵ When he was taken off oxygen supplementation, his spells recurred, but with oxygen support he remained clinically stable.

MANAGEMENT

3. Which is the next logical step in our patient’s management?

• Consult a surgeon for lobectomy
• Consult an interventional radiologist for embolization therapy
• Transfer to the intensive care unit for elective intubation
• Observe with close follow-up

Untreated pulmonary AVMs enlarge at an estimated rate of 0.3 mm/year. The estimated death rate is up to 15.8% per year, with most deaths resulting from stroke, cerebral abscess, hemoptysis, and hemothorax.^16–18 Common indications for treatment are progressively enlarging lesions, symptomatic hypoxemia, and paradoxical embolization.¹⁹ Pulmonary AVMs in which the feeding artery is 3 mm or more in diameter require treatment.

Embolization therapy, in which the AVM is occluded angiographically, is considered a first-line treatment for pulmonary AVM, with a procedural success rate (defined as involution of the AVM) of 97%.²⁰ Embolization therapy allows patients to avoid major surgery, with its potential complications, and it has a shorter recovery time.

Surgical procedures such as excision, vascular ligation, or lobectomy can be considered if the lesion cannot be treated by embolization or if the patient has an anaphylactic allergy to contrast dyes.

This patient had no clinical signs of impending respiratory failure requiring elective intubation.

Since he was experiencing symptoms, there is no role for observation in this case.

Back to our patient

An interventional radiologist was consulted, and the patient underwent bilateral pulmonary artery angiography with successful coil embolization of his large left-upper-lobe AVM. He was weaned off oxygen and had no further spells of generalized weakness and paresthesias.

Given his father’s history of recurrent epistaxis and oral telangiectases, the patient asks about the risk of his children acquiring this disease.

GENETICS OF HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA

4. Which of the following is the inheritance pattern for HHT?

• Autosomal dominant
• Autosomal recessive
• Maternal inheritance
• X-linked recessive

The inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant with variable expression and penetrance. At least four different mutations have been identified in genes on chromosomes 9 and 12 that result in abnormal vascular malformations.^21–24 The other modes of inheritance have not been described in HHT.

 

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR OUR PATIENT

5. Which of the following is not recommended for our patient?

• Consideration of genetic testing
• Consideration of screening of first-degree relatives
• Dental prophylaxis
• Scuba diving

Genetic testing. The molecular diagnosis of HHT is primarily based on sequencing of the entire coding regions of the ENG and ALK1 genes on chromosomes 9 and 12, respectively. The interpretation of these results is quite complex. The clinical genetics laboratories in North America that currently offer molecular diagnostic testing for HHT recommend that testing be coordinated and ordered through a center that specializes in this disease or by a genetics professional. Testing of the index case is performed to confirm the clinical diagnosis and also to determine if genetic testing will be possible in at-risk relatives. Further genetic testing should be pursued in at-risk family members only if the index case has a positive result.²⁵

Screening of relatives. Given that HHT is an autosomal dominant disease, the current practice is to offer molecular genetic screening early in life for first-degree relatives.^25,26 The external signs such as telangiectases and nosebleeds may not manifest until the second or third decade of life. However, AVMs in the brain, spinal cord, lungs, and liver are usually congenital and may present suddenly and with serious complications, even in childhood.

Dental prophylaxis. People with HHT and a pulmonary AVM are at risk of bacteremia and consequent brain abscesses after dental procedures. Antibiotic prophylaxis is therefore highly recommended.²⁷

One sport to avoid. There have been several case reports of paradoxical air emboli occurring in patients with HHT complicated by a pulmonary AVM. Hsu et al²⁸ reported a 31-year-old man with an undiagnosed large pulmonary AVM and HHT who became comatose with diffuse bilateral hemispheric brain swelling on head CT after scuba diving, due to air embolism.

The HHT Foundation International recommends that people with this disease avoid scuba diving (the only sport to be avoided) owing to the risk of air emboli from small lung AVMs. It also recommends that patients alert health care providers about their risk of air embolism whenever intravenous access is being established.

Back to our patient

The patient met with a geneticist, and blood was collected for genetic testing before he was sent home. Additionally, the need to screen his first-degree relatives was thoroughly discussed. Four days after discharge he returned to work, and his spells have not recurred. He has a follow-up appointment scheduled with a pulmonologist specializing in this disease for the results of genetic testing and for continued management.

TAKE-HOME POINTS

• The diagnosis of HHT is based on the following four clinical criteria: spontaneous or recurrent epistaxis, multiple mucocutaneous telangiectases, visceral involvement (eg, cerebral, pulmonary, or gastrointestinal AVM), and a first-degree relative with this disease.
• The diagnosis may be confirmed with genetic testing.
• The diagnosis may be underreported, given the wide spectrum of disease presentation, from inconsequential epistaxis to massive gastrointestinal bleeding.
• HHT is autosomal dominant, and therefore all first-degree relatives should be screened.

A 40-year-old man who works as a roofer began, 1 week ago, to experience episodes of generalized weakness, perioral numbness, and diffuse paresthesias. In the past he has had recurring nosebleeds but no history of other medical conditions.

His recent “spells” come on abruptly and spontaneously, without warning, and last about 15 minutes. He never loses consciousness, but he reports a feeling of derealization or an out-of-body experience—he can hear the people around him talking during the spells, but he feels that everything is far away. He has been having about three episodes per day. They typically occur after mild exertion or heavy lifting, and each episode resolves with complete rest. He has had no nausea, vomiting, loss of bowel or bladder control, fever, chills, or traumatic brain injury.

The patient first reported to the emergency department of a local hospital for evaluation. There, he underwent computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast, which showed nothing abnormal. However, he had an episode while in the emergency department, which prompted his physician to admit him to the hospital.

In the hospital, he underwent an extensive medical evaluation. CT angiography revealed no evidence of vasculitis or occlusive disease. Results of electroencephalography during these spells were normal. Results of magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical and lumbar spine were also normal.

A neurologist was consulted. Concerned that the spells were due to paradoxical emboli coming through a patent foramen ovale, the neurologist recommended transthoracic echocardiography with agitated saline. This study showed a normal ejection fraction and a right-to-left shunt through a left pulmonary arteriovenous malformation (AVM). Unfortunately, the shunt fraction could not be estimated because the patient had another episode during the procedure, and so the procedure was cut short. CT of the chest confirmed a large AVM in the upper lobe of the left lung (Figure 1).

The patient is transferred

The patient’s physician requested that he be transferred to Mayo Clinic for further evaluation.

When he arrived, we performed a complete physical examination, in which we noted scattered erythematous maculopapular telangiectases in the lower lips and significant digital clubbing (Figure 2). He could not recall any family members having rheumatologic or cardiovascular diseases, but he recalled that his father has oral telangiectases and recurrent epistaxis.

His examination was interrupted by yet another spell, during which his oxygen saturation fell to 85%. We immediately started giving him oxygen by nasal cannula, which raised his oxygen saturation to 96%, and the spell promptly ended.

Results of routine laboratory tests are shown in Table 1.

After his physical examination was completed and his records from the other hospital were reviewed, a diagnosis was made. No further diagnostic studies were pursued.

WHICH IS THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS?

1. Based on the information available, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
• Osler-Weber-Rendu disease
• Subarachnoid hemorrhage
• Conversion disorder
• Atrial septal defect

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures begin with abrupt loss of consciousness, followed by stiffening of the body and extremities. This is the tonic phase, which may last for 1 minute. The clonic phase follows, characterized by abnormal jerking and teeth-clenching (raising the concern that the patient will bite his or her tongue). The clonic phase lasts 1 to 2 minutes. After a seizure, confusion and headache are common. On electroencephalography, epileptiform abnormalities are documented in about 23% of patients with a first documented seizure.¹

Our patient’s history of remaining fully conscious and of having normal electroencephalographic findings during his spells does not suggest generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

Osler-Weber-Rendu disease is also known as hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT). Its pathophysiology is complex, and it is believed to be related to mutations in an endothelial protein² that lead to abnormal vascular structures. The estimated prevalence in European studies is 1 in 5,000; in Japanese studies it is 1 in 8,000.^3–4

The diagnosis of HHT is based on four clinical criteria:

• Spontaneous and recurrent epistaxis
• Multiple mucocutaneous telangiectases
• Pulmonary, cerebral, or gastrointestinal AVMs
• A first-degree relative with the disease.

The presence of three or four of these criteria establishes a “definite” diagnosis, while fewer than two makes it “unlikely.”⁵ Since the spectrum of this disease is wide, varying from mild epistaxis to iron-deficiency anemia, its diagnosis is often missed.⁶

Our patient meets at least three of the criteria—recurrent epistaxis, oral telangiectases, and a CT-documented pulmonary AVM. His father has a history of oral telangiectases and epistaxis but was never formally diagnosed with HHT. The patient presented with spells of weakness and paresthesias from worsening hypoxemia due to an enlarged pulmonary AVM. Thus, based on these features, HHT is the most likely diagnosis.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage is commonly from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. Common symptoms include sudden, severe headaches with focal neurologic deficits, a stiff neck, brief loss of consciousness, nausea, and vomiting.⁷

Our patient’s CT scan showed no intracranial bleeding, and CT angiography showed no evidence of aneurysm. Thus, he has neither clinical nor radiographic features of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Conversion disorder is typically associated with psychological stressors.⁸ It is characterized by the sudden onset of neurologic deficits such as blindness, paralysis, and numbness that cannot be explained by a general medical condition.

Our patient has a known pulmonary AVM with clinical and laboratory findings of hypoxemia that explain his spells. Therefore, the diagnosis of conversion disorder cannot be made.

A right-to-left intracardiac shunt can be present in patients with patent foramen ovale, atrial septal defects with shunt reversal, Eisenmenger syndrome, or tetralogy of Fallot (even in adults). It can present with hypoxemia and neurologic weakness.

Our patient’s echocardiogram ruled out these conditions.

 

MANIFESTATIONS OF HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA

2. Which is the most common clinical manifestation of HHT?

• Epistaxis
• Mucocutaneous telangiectases
• Hematochezia
• Dyspnea

Epistaxis is the most common presentation, occurring in more than 90% of patients.⁹ Many patients experience only mild occasional nosebleeds that are not frequent or severe enough to cause anemia or to lead to medical treatment or consultation. Others, however, have heavy, frequent bleeding that requires invasive interventions.¹⁰

Mucocutaneous telangiectases are the second most common clinical manifestation, documented in about 75% of patients. They are cosmetically unpleasant but rarely bleed. They occur most commonly on the face, lips, tongue, and fingertips, and they increase in size and number with age.¹¹

Gastrointestinal bleeding, sometimes manifesting as hematochezia, occurs in one-third of people with HHT. It most commonly presents with iron-deficiency anemia in patients over age 40.¹²

Dyspnea. Pulmonary AVMs occur in 30% to 50% of affected people, but interestingly, most patients with pulmonary AVMs have no respiratory symptoms, including dyspnea.

In pulmonary AVMs, abnormal vessels replace normal capillary beds, creating a capillary-free communication between the pulmonary and systemic circulations. This abnormal connection prevents blood from the pulmonary arterial system from being oxygenated, resulting in hypoxemia and secondary polycythemia, as in our patient. One-third of patients have evidence of right-to-left shunting, such as the clubbing in our patient.^9,13

Other, less common complications of HHT include seizures or hemorrhage from cerebral AVMs and stroke and brain abscesses from paradoxical embolization due to the loss of the capillary filter in the pulmonary vascular bed. Hepatic involvement may result in portal hypertension and hepatic encephalopathy.¹⁴

Back to our patient

As mentioned above, during one of the patient’s spells of paresthesia and weakness, we noted his oxygen saturation by oximetry was 85%. At that time, his arterial Po₂ was also low at 50 mm Hg (normal 70–100). With oxygen supplementation, his spell completely resolved and his Po₂ improved to 80 mm Hg. Though the shunt fraction of his pulmonary AVM was never measured, it was likely less than 30% of the cardiac output, as his hypoxemia improved with oxygen supplementation alone.¹⁵ When he was taken off oxygen supplementation, his spells recurred, but with oxygen support he remained clinically stable.

MANAGEMENT

3. Which is the next logical step in our patient’s management?

• Consult a surgeon for lobectomy
• Consult an interventional radiologist for embolization therapy
• Transfer to the intensive care unit for elective intubation
• Observe with close follow-up

Untreated pulmonary AVMs enlarge at an estimated rate of 0.3 mm/year. The estimated death rate is up to 15.8% per year, with most deaths resulting from stroke, cerebral abscess, hemoptysis, and hemothorax.^16–18 Common indications for treatment are progressively enlarging lesions, symptomatic hypoxemia, and paradoxical embolization.¹⁹ Pulmonary AVMs in which the feeding artery is 3 mm or more in diameter require treatment.

Embolization therapy, in which the AVM is occluded angiographically, is considered a first-line treatment for pulmonary AVM, with a procedural success rate (defined as involution of the AVM) of 97%.²⁰ Embolization therapy allows patients to avoid major surgery, with its potential complications, and it has a shorter recovery time.

Surgical procedures such as excision, vascular ligation, or lobectomy can be considered if the lesion cannot be treated by embolization or if the patient has an anaphylactic allergy to contrast dyes.

This patient had no clinical signs of impending respiratory failure requiring elective intubation.

Since he was experiencing symptoms, there is no role for observation in this case.

Back to our patient

An interventional radiologist was consulted, and the patient underwent bilateral pulmonary artery angiography with successful coil embolization of his large left-upper-lobe AVM. He was weaned off oxygen and had no further spells of generalized weakness and paresthesias.

Given his father’s history of recurrent epistaxis and oral telangiectases, the patient asks about the risk of his children acquiring this disease.

GENETICS OF HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA

4. Which of the following is the inheritance pattern for HHT?

• Autosomal dominant
• Autosomal recessive
• Maternal inheritance
• X-linked recessive

The inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant with variable expression and penetrance. At least four different mutations have been identified in genes on chromosomes 9 and 12 that result in abnormal vascular malformations.^21–24 The other modes of inheritance have not been described in HHT.

 

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR OUR PATIENT

5. Which of the following is not recommended for our patient?

• Consideration of genetic testing
• Consideration of screening of first-degree relatives
• Dental prophylaxis
• Scuba diving

Genetic testing. The molecular diagnosis of HHT is primarily based on sequencing of the entire coding regions of the ENG and ALK1 genes on chromosomes 9 and 12, respectively. The interpretation of these results is quite complex. The clinical genetics laboratories in North America that currently offer molecular diagnostic testing for HHT recommend that testing be coordinated and ordered through a center that specializes in this disease or by a genetics professional. Testing of the index case is performed to confirm the clinical diagnosis and also to determine if genetic testing will be possible in at-risk relatives. Further genetic testing should be pursued in at-risk family members only if the index case has a positive result.²⁵

Screening of relatives. Given that HHT is an autosomal dominant disease, the current practice is to offer molecular genetic screening early in life for first-degree relatives.^25,26 The external signs such as telangiectases and nosebleeds may not manifest until the second or third decade of life. However, AVMs in the brain, spinal cord, lungs, and liver are usually congenital and may present suddenly and with serious complications, even in childhood.

Dental prophylaxis. People with HHT and a pulmonary AVM are at risk of bacteremia and consequent brain abscesses after dental procedures. Antibiotic prophylaxis is therefore highly recommended.²⁷

One sport to avoid. There have been several case reports of paradoxical air emboli occurring in patients with HHT complicated by a pulmonary AVM. Hsu et al²⁸ reported a 31-year-old man with an undiagnosed large pulmonary AVM and HHT who became comatose with diffuse bilateral hemispheric brain swelling on head CT after scuba diving, due to air embolism.

The HHT Foundation International recommends that people with this disease avoid scuba diving (the only sport to be avoided) owing to the risk of air emboli from small lung AVMs. It also recommends that patients alert health care providers about their risk of air embolism whenever intravenous access is being established.

Back to our patient

The patient met with a geneticist, and blood was collected for genetic testing before he was sent home. Additionally, the need to screen his first-degree relatives was thoroughly discussed. Four days after discharge he returned to work, and his spells have not recurred. He has a follow-up appointment scheduled with a pulmonologist specializing in this disease for the results of genetic testing and for continued management.

TAKE-HOME POINTS

• The diagnosis of HHT is based on the following four clinical criteria: spontaneous or recurrent epistaxis, multiple mucocutaneous telangiectases, visceral involvement (eg, cerebral, pulmonary, or gastrointestinal AVM), and a first-degree relative with this disease.
• The diagnosis may be confirmed with genetic testing.
• The diagnosis may be underreported, given the wide spectrum of disease presentation, from inconsequential epistaxis to massive gastrointestinal bleeding.
• HHT is autosomal dominant, and therefore all first-degree relatives should be screened.

A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with postprandial epigastric and right-upper-quadrant pain, sometimes associated with nausea. She has been having six to eight loose bowel movements every day, with no blood or mucus, and she has lost about 20 lb despite a good appetite. The diarrhea did not improve when she tried omitting milk products and carbohydrates.

Her symptoms began several months ago, but she says that 3 days ago the pain worsened steadily, radiating to the middle of her back, with associated episodes of nonbloody, nonbilious emesis. She cannot keep down liquids or solids. She says she has never had such episodes in the past.

She reports no oral ulcers, urinary symptoms, skin rashes, musculoskeletal pain, or neurologic symptoms, and she denies being anxious or depressed.

She has no history of serious illness, surgery, or hospitalization. She smokes a half pack of cigarettes a day, drinks alcohol occasionally, and smokes marijuana occasionally. She is employed as a certified nursing assistant.

She is taking ethinyl estradiol-levonorgestrel pills for birth control and takes calcium carbonate as needed for abdominal discomfort. She is taking no other medications, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Her maternal uncle died of colon cancer at age 32, and her mother had colon polyps on colonoscopy. There is no family history of inflammatory bowel disease or celiac sprue. Her father committed suicide.

Her laboratory values

• White blood cell count 10.2 × 10⁹/L (normal range 4–11)
• Red blood cell count 4.71 × 10¹²/L (3.9–5.5)
• Hemoglobin 14.4 g/dL (12–16)
• Hematocrit 42.4% (37%–47%)
• Mean corpuscular volume 90 fL (83–99)
• Mean corpuscular hemoglobin 30.6 pg (27–33)
• Platelet count 230 × 10⁹/L (150–400)
• Red cell distribution width 13.3% (11.5%–14.5%)
• Sodium 140 mmol/L (132–148)
• Potassium 3.3 mmol/L (3.5–5.0)
• Chloride 104 mmol/L (98–111)
• Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (23–32)
• Blood urea nitrogen 9 mg/dL (8–25)
• Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (0.7–1.4)
• Glucose 87 mg/dL (65–100)
• Alanine aminotransferase 26 U/L (0–45)
• Aspartate aminotransferase 21 U/L (7–40)
• Alkaline phosphatase 101 U/L (40–150)
• Total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL (0–1.5)
• Albumin 3.5 g/dL (3.5–5)
• Pregnancy screen negative
• Urine toxicology screen negative.

Physical examination

The patient is very thin and appears quite uncomfortable. Her temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), pulse rate 101, respiratory rate 18, blood pressure 111/67 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Her skin is warm and dry. Her height is 66 inches, weight 116 lb, and body mass index 18.7.

Examination of the head and neck shows normal dentition, dry mucus membranes, and no oral exudates. The thyroid is normal, and no masses or lymphadenopathy are noted.

Heart sounds and rhythm are normal, and the lungs are clear with no crackles or rubs. The abdomen is scaphoid and soft, with no distention. She has epigastric tenderness but no rebound, guarding, rigidity, palpable mass, or costovertebral angle tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. The neurologic examination is normal.

NARROWING THE DIAGNOSIS

1. Given the history and findings so far, which is the least likely cause of her symptoms?

• Lactose intolerance
• Celiac disease
• Crohn disease
• Duodenal ulcer
• Eating disorder

This young woman’s presentation has some features found in all of these conditions. However, the least likely is lactose intolerance.

Lactose intolerance results from a shortage of the enzyme lactase, which is normally produced by the cells that line the small intestine. Close to 50 million American adults have lactose intolerance. Common symptoms include nausea, cramps, bloating, gas, and diarrhea, which begin about 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating or drinking foods containing lactose.

Since the patient’s symptoms did not improve when she tried omitting milk products, and since lactose intolerance is rarely associated with pain radiating to the back and with severe vomiting, this is the least likely cause of her symptoms.

Celiac disease presents with a myriad of symptoms—sometimes without gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. Anemia is the most common laboratory finding, due most often to iron deficiency, but also due to deficiencies of vitamin B₁₂ and folate as a result of malabsorption.¹

Our patient’s laboratory values—especially her red cell indices—do not confirm this finding. One must also remember, however, that hemoglobin tends to be falsely elevated in patients who are dehydrated.

Crohn disease often presents with occult blood loss, low-grade fever, weight loss, and anemia. Though the condition is most often ileocolic, it can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Nevertheless, most patients with gastroduodenal involvement have previously been diagnosed with ileocolic disease, and gastroduodenal involvement manifests later. Nonradiating epigastric pain is very common. Obstructive symptoms due to gastroduodenal strictures (eg, postprandial vomiting, epigastric pain, weight loss, bloating) are also common. ²

Duodenal ulcer. The most important factors responsible for duodenal ulcers are NSAID use and Helicobacter pylori infection.³ Duodenal ulcers have a variety of clinical presentations, ranging from no symptoms to severe pain. Epigastric pain can be sharp, dull, burning, or penetrating. Many patients complain of a feeling of hunger and weight gain—as opposed to gastric ulcer, in which patients experience anorexia and weight loss. Abdominal pain generally occurs several hours after meals and often awakens the patient at night. Pain is often relieved by food, but this phenomenon is present in only 20% to 60% of patients and probably is not specific for duodenal ulcer.

Our patient does not use NSAIDs, but some of her symptoms, such as postprandial pain, epigastric pain radiating to the back, and nausea and vomiting are seen with duodenal ulcer.

Eating disorders. The two main types of eating disorders—anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa—have a significant diagnostic overlap,⁴ and a third type, binge-eating disorder, is currently being investigated and defined. Girls and women are 10 times as likely as boys and men to develop an eating disorder.

People with anorexia have a distorted view of their bodies. Even when they are extremely thin, they see themselves as too fat.

Bulimia is characterized by binge-eating, purging, and overexercising to compensate for the excess calories. Patients are often close to normal weight.

Binge-eating disorder involves the consumption of very large amounts of food in a short period of time. About 2% of all young adults in the United States struggle with bingeeating. They are either overweight or obese.

These disorders tend to be associated with other psychiatric disorders such as depression or obsessive-compulsive disorder. Our patient sought medical attention and was appropriately concerned about her weight loss, which make an eating disorder unlikely.

 

CASE CONTINUED: SHE UNDERGOES CT

We send our patient for computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen with contrast (Figure 1). The stomach and duodenum are distended, and the duodenum is compressed under the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). Upper GI endoscopy shows a normal esophagus, normal gastric antrum, and normal duodenal bulb. The second and third portions of the duodenum are narrowed with prominent pulsations.

2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis at this point?

• SMA syndrome
• Chronic mesenteric ischemia involving the SMA
• Megaduodenum due to a connective tissue disorder

SMA syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. Despite its name, this syndrome is not a vascular condition. It is an uncommon cause of proximal intestinal obstruction in which the duodenum is compressed between the SMA and the aorta. First described in 1861, it has also been known as cast syndrome, Wilkie syndrome, and arteriomesenteric duodenal obstruction.⁵

The SMA usually arises from the anterior aspect of the aorta at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is surrounded by fatty and lymphatic tissues that protect the duodenum from compression. In most patients, the angle between the SMA and the aorta is about 25 to 60 degrees, due in part to the mesenteric fat pad, and the angle correlates with the body mass index.⁶ In SMA syndrome, loss of the mesenteric fat pad reduces the angle to as little as 6 degrees, allowing the SMA to compress the duodenum against the aorta (Figure 2).

To date, more than 400 cases of this syndrome have been reported, twice as many in women as in men. Most patients are between 20 and 40 years of age at the time of diagnosis. Common presenting symptoms include postprandial abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss, which may further reduce the angle between the SMA and the aorta. Diarrhea is not generally associated with this syndrome, and in our patient’s case the diarrhea was thought to be unrelated to the SMA syndrome, since it subsided spontaneously.

Conditions and events that cause, contribute to, or worsen SMA syndrome include:

• Rapid weight loss (as in cancer or burns) or lean body habitus
• Prolonged bed rest
• Use of a body cast
• Malabsorption
• Spinal disease, deformity, or trauma
• Scoliosis surgery
• Rapid linear growth without compensatory weight gain
• Abnormally high and fixed position of the ligament of Treitz
• Abdominal surgery
• Cardiac cachexia
• Unusually low origin of the SMA.⁷

More common causes of mechanical smallbowel obstruction are adhesions, hernias, and tumors.⁸ Hyperactive, high-pitched peristalsis with rushes coinciding with cramps is typical. Abdominal cramps are centered around the umbilicus or in the epigastrium and are associated with vomiting; obstipation develops in patients with complete obstruction. Patients with partial obstruction may develop diarrhea. Paralytic ileus secondary to hypokalemia is an important consideration in partial obstruction. However, abdominal radiography and CT did not confirm an obstruction, and her symptoms persisted despite correction of the potassium level.

Chronic mesenteric ischemia can be caused by vasculitis, nonocclusive conditions that cause prolonged vasoconstriction (eg, cocaine ingestion), or reduced cardiac output.⁹ Symptoms are due to the gradual reduction in blood flow to the intestine that occurs during eating. Our patient’s toxicology report did not suggest cocaine abuse, and her history and the workup thus far do not suggest heart failure. A workup for vasculitis was negative.

Megaduodenum, SMA-like syndrome. In rare cases, dilation of the duodenum at the level of the SMA may be part of a generalized duodenal dilation caused by something other than obstruction due to mechanical compression. There are conditions, as described below, that cause an SMA-like syndrome.

A compression defect of the duodenum at the site where the SMA crossed the duodenum was found in a series of 11 cases of systemic sclerosis.¹⁰ These patients had definite dilation of the duodenum, but it was a result of atrophy of the muscle layers and replacement by collagenous tissue, changes that result in diminished peristalsis, loss of muscle tone, and dilation. The duodenum yields to pressure in its third portion under the SMA.

Several pathologic conditions, particularly connective tissue disorders, may predispose to the development of a megaduodenum that may result in an imprint on the duodenum at the level of the SMA. The most noteworthy of these conditions is scleroderma. Other conditions that can cause reduced duodenal peristalsis include diabetes, pancreatitis, dermatomyositis, lupus erythematosus, myxedema, and amyloidosis.¹¹

It is important to distinguish SMA syndrome from SMA-like syndromes for several reasons.¹² SMA-like syndromes result in loss of normal peristalsis. Further, the conditions have different outcomes, even though they are managed similarly initially, ie, with rehydration and parenteral nutrition. Surgery is to be avoided if possible in conditions that affect widespread areas of the intestine, such as scleroderma or diabetic neuropathy.

 

3. Which of the following is helpful in confirming SMA syndrome?

• CT of the abdomen
• Upper GI radiography series
• Upper GI endoscopy

All three can help confirm the diagnosis.

CT of the abdomen is a convenient, safe, rapid, readily available, and relatively noninvasive way to evaluate the aortomesenteric angle and to view retroperitoneal and mesenteric fat.¹³ Rehydration before injecting intravenous dye is important to avoid precipitating renal failure. In this patient, CT findings that helped make the diagnosis included a narrow aortomesenteric angle, compression of the duodenum, and a paucity of fat around the SMA.

An upper GI series can reveal dilation of the first and second portions of the duodenum and abrupt compression of the duodenal mucosal folds. Other findings can include a delay of 4 to 6 hours in gastroduodenal transit and relief of the obstruction when the patient is in the left lateral decubitus position. The Hayes maneuver refers to the disappearance of these radiologic features in the knee-chest position on cinefluoroscopy.¹⁴ The findings mentioned above are best noted in the supine position on both radiography and CT.

Endoscopy is necessary to rule out mechanical causes of duodenal obstruction. A pulsatile extrinsic compression suggests this condition but is found only occasionally.

Other imaging studies, such as ultrasonography, arteriography, and hypotonic duodenography, are used less often.

4. At this time, which of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment in this patient?

• Conservative treatment
• Narcotics
• Duodenojejunostomy

Conservative treatment is indicated initially in all cases of SMA syndrome.¹⁵ This involves reversing precipitating factors and replacing fluid, electrolytes, and nutrition via total parenteral nutrition and nasogastric decompression.

To avoid keeping the patient on intravenous therapy for a prolonged time, it is important to start enteral feeding once the pain has subsided and the patient can tolerate it. A double-lumen nasojejunal tube is passed distal to the obstruction under fluoroscopic guidance. During feedings, the patient should be in the modified knee-chest, prone, or leftside-down position, all of which increase the aortomesenteric angle.

Delaying the treatment of SMA syndrome can increase the risk of morbidity and mortality by progressive malnutrition, dehydration, oliguria, electrolyte abnormalities (eg, hypokalemia), or intestinal perforation from prolonged ischemia.^16,17

Narcotics and other drugs known to slow gut motility should be avoided.

Symptoms typically improve after restoration of normal body weight. If conservative treatment fails, or if the case is severe or chronic, surgery is required.¹⁸ Fortunately, this is not required often.

Duodenojejunostomy is the most common surgical treatment and involves creation of an alternate route between the duodenum and the jejunum, bypassing the compression between the aorta and the SMA. Other procedures include gastrojejunostomy, laparoscopic duodenojejunostomy, ¹⁹ a Roux-en-Y procedure, robotically assisted duodenojejunostomy, and anterior transposition of the third portion of the duodenum. Cleavage of the ligament of Treitz is another option, enabling the duodenum to drop away from the apex of the sharpened aortomesenteric angle.

WHEN TO CONSIDER SMA SYNDROME

The SMA syndrome is an uncommon cause of a very common presenting symptom, ie, abdominal pain. Nevertheless, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain, especially in patients who have conditions that cause significant weight loss, such as anorexia nervosa, malabsorption, or hypercatabolic states such as burns, major surgery, severe injuries, or malignancies. The diagnosis is based on a thorough history and on supportive findings from CT and endoscopy.

In our patient, weight loss began with nonspecific diarrhea but perpetuated itself as SMA syndrome occurred.

Appropriate management consists of interrupting the cycle of weight loss and secondary upper gut obstruction. For patients in whom more definitive therapy is not feasible, a gastrostomy tube for decompression with a jejunal extension available for feeding appears to be a reasonable and safe treatment option. Duodenojejunostomy is considered the procedure of choice in severe cases.

CASE CONCLUDED

Fortunately, our patient responded well to conservative management. She was treated with intravenous hydration and correction of electrolytes and 10 days later was able to tolerate a soft diet. She was discharged in stable condition. At a follow-up visit 2 weeks later, she reported minimal abdominal discomfort, was able to tolerate meals, and had gained a few pounds. She continues to do well.